Help with Calvin quote on Scripture's authority

[RamistThomist]

He writes,

Scriptures obtain full authority among believers only when men regard them as having sprung from heaven, as if there the were living words of God were heard

(ICR I.VII.1).

Is he saying Scripture becomes fully authoritative only when men regard it so?

 

[rickclayfan]

Beveridge's translation:

"The full authority which they ought to possess with the faithful is not recognized, unless they are believed to have come from heaven, as directly as if God had been heard giving utterance to them."

If that is of any help.

Also, in the next paragraph he goes on to say (showing that he did not intend to mean that which you ask),

"A most pernicious error has very generally prevailed, i.e., that Scripture is of importance only insofar as conceded to it by the suffrage of the church; as if the eternal and inviolable truth of God could depend on the will of men."

 

[RamistThomist]

Beveridge's translation:

"The full authority which they ought to possess with the faithful is not recognized, unless they are believed to have come from heaven, as directly as if God had been heard giving utterance to them."

If that is of any help.

Also, in the next paragraph he goes on to say (showing that he did not intend to mean that which you ask),

"A most pernicious error has very generally prevailed, i.e., that Scripture is of importance only insofar as conceded to it by the suffrage of the church; as if the eternal and inviolable truth of God could depend on the will of men."

I am on my fourth read through and when I got to that passage I saw my own notes where it read "and he answers my question." Still, I wonder if the statement is merely a rebuttal to Rome and not something more.

 

[timfost]

We should also keep in mind that he wrote this well before Schleiermacher's subjectivism.

 

[au5t1n]

It simply means that believers are not regarding Scripture with its full authority unless, etc.