Imputed or intrinsic righteousness?

[earl40]

Romans 1:17

17 For therein is the "righteousness" of God revealed from faith to faith: as it is written, The just shall live by faith.

After listening to RC Sproul yesterday he says the "righteousness" of God spoken above is the imputed righteousness to us, and not His intrinsic righteousness He has within Himself....I just can't see this in the verse above. What am I missing? Not to say I don't believe in imputed righteousness.

 

[MW]

Compare Rom. 3:21-22. There is a righteousness of the law and a righteousness of faith. How can it be the intrinsic righteousness of God if it can come to us by different ways? It can only be referring to the way we are accepted as righteous before God. One is by the works of the law; the other is by believing in Jesus. In Rom. 5:17 it is called a gift; in Rom. 10:3 it is not our own. These statements would be meaningless if the righteousness of God were an attribute of God Himself.

 

[paranymph]

Romans 1:17

17 For therein is the "righteousness" of God revealed from faith to faith: as it is written, The just shall live by faith.

After listening to RC Sproul yesterday he says the "righteousness" of God spoken above is the imputed righteousness to us, and not His intrinsic righteousness He has within Himself....I just can't see this in the verse above. What am I missing? Not to say I don't believe in imputed righteousness.

The context clarifies what the righteousness of God (from God) is in the quote of Habakkuk. "The righteous shall live by (ek) faith." This tells us that it is the person, not God, who is being talked about as righteous. How does this righteousness come? By faith. By faith we receive the righteousness that God gives. Phil 3:9 also clarifies. Righteousness is not from/by (ek) the law, but through (dia) faith in Christ, the righteousness from (ek) God that depends on (epi) faith.

 

[arapahoepark]

Romans 1:17

17 For therein is the "righteousness" of God revealed from faith to faith: as it is written, The just shall live by faith.

After listening to RC Sproul yesterday he says the "righteousness" of God spoken above is the imputed righteousness to us, and not His intrinsic righteousness He has within Himself....I just can't see this in the verse above. What am I missing? Not to say I don't believe in imputed righteousness.

That's part of the genitive debate. Is it genitive of source or subject genitive? Like others have said, I think the context is clear that it is the righteousness from God aka the genitive of source.
Now it's possible to still be Protestant and say it's God's own righteousness being revealed in all that he does. Just depends on the context.