AThornquist
Puritan Board Doctor
As I'm studying through Matthew I'm rather perplexed by these verses. Would anyone be willing to help me out here? I'm going to throw out some questions to demonstrate where I am having difficulty.
From the ESV:
"(11) Truly, I say to you, among those born of women there has arisen no one greater than John the Baptist. Yet the one who is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than he. (12) From the days of John the Baptist until now the kingdom of heaven has suffered violence, and the violent take it by force."
On verse 11:
Is "the kingdom of heaven" referring to earth, a present spiritual reality on earth, heaven, or other? Is it the same "kingdom of heaven" Jesus preached in Matthew 4:17, "Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand."?
If the "kingdom of heaven" in Matthew 4:17 and 11:11 are the same, what does "at hand" mean?
Why is the one who is least in the kingdom of heaven greater than he?
Does being least in the kingdom refer to humility, and does it refer to Christ?
On verse 12:
Hendriksen's commentary on Matthew argues that v. 12 should be translated, "From the days of John the Baptist until now the kingdom is pressing forward vigorously, and vigorous men are eagerly taking possession of it." This commentary completely rejects the translation of "suffered violence" or "is suffering violence." However, most translations seem to translate the verse in the way that is rejected by Hendriksen. What is the most accurate translation of this passage, in your estimation?
If the "kingdom of heaven" is earth or a present spiritual reality on earth, would it suffering violence and being taken by force refer to demonic control, thus the "until now" might refer to Jesus' new control and the bondage of Satan? Or does "until now" mean "even now"?
Is the view that Christians "violently" take the kingdom a valid one? I suppose the conclusion of what exactly the kingdom is would be important at this point.
Thank you.
From the ESV:
"(11) Truly, I say to you, among those born of women there has arisen no one greater than John the Baptist. Yet the one who is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than he. (12) From the days of John the Baptist until now the kingdom of heaven has suffered violence, and the violent take it by force."
On verse 11:
Is "the kingdom of heaven" referring to earth, a present spiritual reality on earth, heaven, or other? Is it the same "kingdom of heaven" Jesus preached in Matthew 4:17, "Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand."?
If the "kingdom of heaven" in Matthew 4:17 and 11:11 are the same, what does "at hand" mean?
Why is the one who is least in the kingdom of heaven greater than he?
Does being least in the kingdom refer to humility, and does it refer to Christ?
On verse 12:
Hendriksen's commentary on Matthew argues that v. 12 should be translated, "From the days of John the Baptist until now the kingdom is pressing forward vigorously, and vigorous men are eagerly taking possession of it." This commentary completely rejects the translation of "suffered violence" or "is suffering violence." However, most translations seem to translate the verse in the way that is rejected by Hendriksen. What is the most accurate translation of this passage, in your estimation?
If the "kingdom of heaven" is earth or a present spiritual reality on earth, would it suffering violence and being taken by force refer to demonic control, thus the "until now" might refer to Jesus' new control and the bondage of Satan? Or does "until now" mean "even now"?
Is the view that Christians "violently" take the kingdom a valid one? I suppose the conclusion of what exactly the kingdom is would be important at this point.
Thank you.