Corey Powell
Puritan Board Freshman
Assuming that it is in fact inspired Scripture...
Today TE Matthew Everhart posted a video defending the death penalty via John Frame.
One person is commenting "John 8:1-11" on most of the comments agreeing with Frame, and told me also that it is incompatible with love (liberal logic to start).
How do we think of this passage, Jesus telling the pharisees they can't throw stones because they have sin? and that he doesn't condemn her (forgiving sins=escaping natural consequences?)? I've heard it said that it was because they did not also bring the man. But in the bigger picture how can we explain that this is not saying mercy always triumphs over justice in civil law?
One thought I had is that this could be a picture of Jesus showing the abrogation on the civil mosaic law, as the Noahic law did not require death for adultery but specifically for murder. Was the Levitical law then just a higher standard of capital punishment that was added to Israel and then done away with at the coming of Christ, reflected now in church excommunication? Or is this a misapplication of this passage? It seems to me (as a general equity Presbyterian, not theonomist) that this would indicate that CP is to be carried out only by the State (Rom 13:4) and not now by public stoning or religious rulers.
Today TE Matthew Everhart posted a video defending the death penalty via John Frame.
One person is commenting "John 8:1-11" on most of the comments agreeing with Frame, and told me also that it is incompatible with love (liberal logic to start).
How do we think of this passage, Jesus telling the pharisees they can't throw stones because they have sin? and that he doesn't condemn her (forgiving sins=escaping natural consequences?)? I've heard it said that it was because they did not also bring the man. But in the bigger picture how can we explain that this is not saying mercy always triumphs over justice in civil law?
One thought I had is that this could be a picture of Jesus showing the abrogation on the civil mosaic law, as the Noahic law did not require death for adultery but specifically for murder. Was the Levitical law then just a higher standard of capital punishment that was added to Israel and then done away with at the coming of Christ, reflected now in church excommunication? Or is this a misapplication of this passage? It seems to me (as a general equity Presbyterian, not theonomist) that this would indicate that CP is to be carried out only by the State (Rom 13:4) and not now by public stoning or religious rulers.