a mere housewife
Not your cup of tea
I have seen this discussed here before, but don't recall the question I have being addressed. In Mark 3:23-28, is Christ using the example of David not simply as an example of how the Sabbath is subject to necessity and mercy, but about how the ceremonial is subservient to its type? (I'm sorry I'm not saying this well -- I'm sure I don't have the proper theological vocabulary in which to express the question.) David takes the bread of the Presence and gives it to those who are with him; so Christ allows his disciples to pluck grain on the Sabbath. There is a comparison of the figures, it seems as well as of the actions -- David and Christ; David giving to his followers, and Christ to His. And so it seems there may be a typical aspect to what David did there, which Christ is referencing and which leads up to Him declaring Himself as the Lord of the Sabbath. Again, I'm sorry if this is phrased very unclearly, but I thought someone here might know where to point me.