Tirian
Puritan Board Sophomore
I'm assuming those who believe that worship should be without instruments believe that singing only the psalms is part of the RPW. If the OT saints before David did not sing them as part of the RPW, then why are we allowed to sing them unless David brought in permissible ways of worshipping God (as I said earlier, David seemed to do non-permissible things when it came to doing things only priest were allowed to do). If he did, then we can use both the psalms and instruments. If he didn't, then to hold true to the RPW we cannot sing the Psalms either since they didn't sing them before David's time.
I think the argument against that would be progressive revelation, and having ultimately been inscripturated it becomes normative.