Originally posted by openairboy
Originally posted by Rick Larson
Okay, I want to understand this NIV thing. I know that it's not a literal translation, and I would never use it for inductive Bible study. I use the NKJV personally. There's a difference, however, between a not-so-good translation and a "perversion". The latter seems to imply malicious intent. I would be amazed and shocked if guys like Gordan Fee and D.A. Carson were openly embracing a perversion.
What consitutes a translation being a perversion? Does a fundamental tenant of Christian teaching have to be jeopardized, or is it a relative term which can be used if one just doesn't like it?
One, it is a bit of joke, because it fits (jokingly and literally). Two, a perversion simply means "to twist the meaning or sense of: mistranslation"; hence the literal fitting for the NIV. Yes, I think the NIV is a mistranslation at MANY points opposed to a few verses here and there, ESPECIALLY in their latest rendition, so it literally fits the definition of a perversion.
So, what constitutes a translation being a perversion? Simply a mistranslation. No, I don't believe it has to be malicious in intent to fit the definition.