It seems like most books explaining the Olivet Discourse from the preterist perspective focus almost entirely on Matthew 24 to the neglect of parallel passages (Marcellus Kik's "An Eschatology of Victory," etc). For example, when comparing the parallel passages to Matthew 24, a few verses seem to contradict some of Kik's conclusions. (His conclusions are basically that verses 1-35 refer to the destruction of Jerusalem, and then 36-end refer to the second coming)
In Luke 17, Jesus says the days of the Son of man will be like the days of Noah or the days of Lot where life is going along as normal and then they are suddenly destroyed. Right after that, Jesus says, "Even thus shall it be in the day when the Son of man is revealed. In that day, he which shall be upon the housetop, and his stuff in the house, let him not come down to take it away: and he that is in the field, let him likewise not return back." According to typical preterist exegesis in Matthew 24, this verse is instructing people to run as fast as they can to get out of Jerusalem when they see the Roman armies approaching the city (the abomination of desolation). However, Luke's account has this running-fast applying to the second coming as it follows on the heels of the reference to the days of Noah and days of Lot (compare with Matt 24). But how could you run on that day? Or is Jesus alluding to the day of judgment on Jerusalem when he says in verse 30 "Even thus shall it be in the day when the Son of man is revealed"?
Also, in Luke 17:26, Jesus says, "And as it was in the days of Noe, so shall it be also in the days of the Son of man." At least in Matthew 24, preterist interpreters make the argument that Jesus transitions in the second half of the dialogue to "day" rather than "days" to refer to "that day," the second coming...but in Luke, Jesus is referring to the "days of the Son of man" -- how could the references to the days of Noah and Lot be referring to the second coming when Jesus is using the plural "days" of the Son of man?
Also, in Luke 21:27-28, Jesus says, "And then shall they see the Son of man coming in a cloud with power and great glory. And when these things begin to come to pass, then look up, and lift up your heads; for your redemption draweth nigh." What "redemption" is he referring to? ("redemption" is a strong word)
In Luke 17, Jesus says the days of the Son of man will be like the days of Noah or the days of Lot where life is going along as normal and then they are suddenly destroyed. Right after that, Jesus says, "Even thus shall it be in the day when the Son of man is revealed. In that day, he which shall be upon the housetop, and his stuff in the house, let him not come down to take it away: and he that is in the field, let him likewise not return back." According to typical preterist exegesis in Matthew 24, this verse is instructing people to run as fast as they can to get out of Jerusalem when they see the Roman armies approaching the city (the abomination of desolation). However, Luke's account has this running-fast applying to the second coming as it follows on the heels of the reference to the days of Noah and days of Lot (compare with Matt 24). But how could you run on that day? Or is Jesus alluding to the day of judgment on Jerusalem when he says in verse 30 "Even thus shall it be in the day when the Son of man is revealed"?
Also, in Luke 17:26, Jesus says, "And as it was in the days of Noe, so shall it be also in the days of the Son of man." At least in Matthew 24, preterist interpreters make the argument that Jesus transitions in the second half of the dialogue to "day" rather than "days" to refer to "that day," the second coming...but in Luke, Jesus is referring to the "days of the Son of man" -- how could the references to the days of Noah and Lot be referring to the second coming when Jesus is using the plural "days" of the Son of man?
Also, in Luke 21:27-28, Jesus says, "And then shall they see the Son of man coming in a cloud with power and great glory. And when these things begin to come to pass, then look up, and lift up your heads; for your redemption draweth nigh." What "redemption" is he referring to? ("redemption" is a strong word)