MJ William Denman
Puritan Board Freshman
Spent some time on social media this morning and came upon a "Reverend" who stated the following :-
and
He seemingly believes that it's an impossibility to both quote a text that refers directly to something you're saying, and speak those same words in the present moment?
I think he's Word of Faith, which might explain.
Jesus wasn't quoting Ps 22: 1 as Ps 22 is a prophecy about Jesus.
The Greek tense for, "It is finished ", is past tense whereas the death of Jesus was future tense as Jesus wasn't dead when He said it, or at the very least, His death was present tense, but it certainly wasn't past tense, and anyone who knows the Bible. Will know that salvation wasn't finished on the cross.
and
no Jesus didn't quote Ps 22. Ps 22 was a prophecy about Jesus. See
Lk 24: 44. in other words. Ps 22 was quoting Jesus.
He seemingly believes that it's an impossibility to both quote a text that refers directly to something you're saying, and speak those same words in the present moment?
I think he's Word of Faith, which might explain.