Andrew Gordon
Puritan Board Freshman
I do belive the atonement to only be for God's people, those united to Christ by faith. Here's my question: Is it possible to say that in a way Christ died for everyone because even common grace is a benefit of the atonement? If Christ had not died there would be neither common or saving grace, correct? So, essentially the reprobate receive mercy and common grace through Christ's death as well?
Is this what I Timothy 4:10 speaks of when Paul says, "For to this end we both labor and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Savior of all men, especially of those who believe."
Would Jesus technically be the Savior of all men because His death purchased both common AND saving grace, but especially for those who believe like the verse says? Obviously only saving grace is electing grace.
This idea was recently brought to my attention. It's interesting to me because I think it is partially correct, but I'm not completely comfortable with saying that Jesus died for all men, to purchase common grace for all and saving grace for some.
What are your thoughts
Is this what I Timothy 4:10 speaks of when Paul says, "For to this end we both labor and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Savior of all men, especially of those who believe."
Would Jesus technically be the Savior of all men because His death purchased both common AND saving grace, but especially for those who believe like the verse says? Obviously only saving grace is electing grace.
This idea was recently brought to my attention. It's interesting to me because I think it is partially correct, but I'm not completely comfortable with saying that Jesus died for all men, to purchase common grace for all and saving grace for some.
What are your thoughts