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Originally posted by joshua
In other words, I suppose, if God had intended it to suffice for the whole world, it would no doubt be sufficient. Yet, that's not in the equation. It is sufficient for the purpose it has.
Originally posted by natewood3
My question is basically is the language of "sufficient for all, efficient for the elect" adequate language to describe the work of Christ?
Originally posted by natewood3
My question is basically is the language of "sufficient for all, efficient for the elect" adequate language to describe the work of Christ?
How can God bless sinners except through the work of Christ? Can God bless a sinner apart from the work of Christ and still remain righteous and just?
Originally posted by natewood3
Joshua,
THAT is my question! I am extremely hesitant to use such language. Actually, I probably would NOT use that language and would discourage others from using it as well. The question I struggle with is this: If there is not some aspect of the atonement that benefited all mankind, from where does the blessings of common grace flow, simply God's goodness? How can God bless sinners except through the work of Christ? Can God bless a sinner apart from the work of Christ and still remain righteous and just?
lets let scripture speak for itself.
Originally posted by C. Matthew McMahon
SIDE NOTE:
lets let scripture speak for itself.
Psalm 91:4 He shall cover you with His feathers.
I guess we worship a chicken!
The bogus hermeneutical tool, "lets let scripture speak for itself", is utterly devasting to most theological ideas. No one can "do" theology this way. One MUST use hermeneutically sound principles to interpret rightly. I know that no one on this board thinks that God is a chicken even though the Psalmist tells us he has feathers. If we let one text speak for itself, then you must let all and "every" text speak for itself.
You can see it is reduced to the absurd.
One must be more careful in exegeting than that.
But I agree that the phrase "sufficient for all" is an incoherent and non-exegetical phrase theologically extracted from speculation about the atonement. It gets people into trouble (can we all say together "Amyraut"?) Dordt included this idea in speaking about the sufficiency of the atonement in speculation. That, In my humble opinion, was their only mistake in the document. The Bible, at no point, speculates about the atonement in any way.
[Edited on 3-26-2006 by C. Matthew McMahon]
Originally posted by joshua
Originally posted by fivepointcalvinist
Originally posted by natewood3
My question is basically is the language of "sufficient for all, efficient for the elect" adequate language to describe the work of Christ?
lets let scripture speak for itself:
1 John 2:2 He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world.
Christs atonement is the ONLY way men can come to God, and His atonement is sufficient to remove the transgressions of all men without exception, but the intent of the propitiation if efficient for the elect because it saves perfectly only those for who it is intended.
Respectfully, I dissent from the above sentiment. The text does not say "He is able to be the atoning...."; rather, it says "He is the atoning sacrifice..." I believe "not only for ours" is speaking to one of two things: Either John is saying, "not only for we Christians here in this part of the world, but for those who are spread abroad", or he's saying, "not only for we the Jews, but for the Gentiles also" If the "whole world" mens all men without exception, and the text says that he IS the atoning sacrifice, then the implication is that the atonement was ineffective for some (though I know that's not what you believe).
Originally posted by C. Matthew McMahon
I would be in this camp on the discussion thus far: I do think the atonement has a direct result on non-believers. It renders them more accountable.
I do not think that the atonement has a positive affect for non-believers. As a matter of fact, Christ Himself renders this verdict: John 3:18 "He who believes in Him is not condemned; but he who does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God."
It was (is.)Originally posted by natewood3
Was the work of Christ sufficient for all? If so, what does that phrase actually mean? If not, does this hinder indiscriminate preaching of the Gospel or God's goodness to all people?
Originally posted by natewood3
I tend to believe that the atonement is sufficient for the elect because of the intention of the atonement. "Sufficient for all" is meaningless because it is simply hypothetical. It would have been sufficient for all, but because of God's sovereign intentions and purposes, it is sufficient for the elect only. A hypothetical atonement is no atonement at all. Jesus actually saved sinners on the cross, not just made it possible, as we all know...
I am still struggling, however, with the fact that God simply blesses sinners on the basis of His nature alone. Why could God not then bless sinners savingly without the atonement if that is the case? Have unbeliever benefited from the atonement in a non-soteriological way? Again, common grace is designed partially to lead people to repentance, so I still believe common grace is mainly for the elect...
Originally posted by natewood3
fivepointcalvinist,
I am in no way asserting that regeneration comes after faith, and I am definitely not using common grace in an Arminian sense. I was referring to Romans 2:
Rom 2:3 Do you suppose, O man--you who judge those who do such things and yet do them yourself--that you will escape the judgment of God?
Rom 2:4 Or do you presume on the riches of his kindness and forbearance and patience, not knowing that God's kindness is meant to lead you to repentance?
Rom 2:5 But because of your hard and impenitent heart you are storing up wrath for yourself on the day of wrath when God's righteous judgment will be revealed.
Where does this "kindness" and "forebearnance" and "patience" come from? I have no problem saying it does not come from the atonement, but at this point I would have to say I do not understand how it can come to sinners who deserve hell, especially those for whom their sins have not been atoned...Why does God hold back His wrath? When I said that common grace is mainly for the elect, what I meant was that God's forebearance allows the elect to be born and effectually called and saved by God. If God simply destroyed non-elect sinners, the elect would never have been born.
As far as your definition of "sufficient," I am not sure I agree. The atonement HAS the power to save all, but does not? I do not believe that is what Calvinists throughout history meant by the term "sufficient." When I think of sufficient, I think of adequate. If something is sufficient, it is adequate or enough. I do not think of power. When I think of efficient I think of power, which is what Calvinists normally criticize Arminians for limiting, namely, the power or efficacy of the atonement. I do not limit its efficacy and power, but its intention and purpose.
I am honestly not sure if you are arguing for or against the idea of "sufficient for all, efficient for the elect."
To take this on a different tack...perhaps "the work fo Christ sufficient for all" shows a understanding of infinity. The guilt of our sin is infinite because God is infinite. As it was expressed in a puritan prayer (Valley of Vision: Penitence), "that if I fail to glorify thee, I am guilty of infinite evil that merits infinite punishment."Originally posted by natewood3
Was the work of Christ sufficient for all? If so, what does that phrase actually mean? If not, does this hinder indiscriminate preaching of the Gospel or God's goodness to all people?
The atonement is not necessary for God to be good to someone. But it is necessary for God to save someone. There is a difference. Common grace is an expression of God's goodness to His creation, without any work or merit in view. The atonement is based upon the perfect merit and work of Christ on behalf of sinners who deserve wrath. The only "benefit" a reprobate would obtain from the atonment would be the fact that God has not finished gathering the elect yet, and thus the world continues and the life of the reprobate is spared temporarily.Originally posted by natewood3
I am still struggling, however, with the fact that God simply blesses sinners on the basis of His nature alone. Why could God not then bless sinners savingly without the atonement if that is the case? Have unbeliever benefited from the atonement in a non-soteriological way? Again, common grace is designed partially to lead people to repentance, so I still believe common grace is mainly for the elect...
Originally posted by trevorjohnson
The aliens on Planet Zeno need the Gospel too!
Who will go?
forgive me if i misunderstood your assertion. let me quote Dr. McMahons commentary (if i may - Dr. McMahon please delete this post if needed) (at the above url) to define what i meant when i stated that sufficiency implies power:
"Jesus Christ´s atonement for sin was of infinite worth. If God desired, He could have saved everyone, and the same atonement that saved His elect, could have saved a million billion worlds "“ hypothetically speaking of course."
On a side note - Did you know Bruce Ware was a 4 pointer? (if there was such a thing)
What you are saying is that the atonement could have saved all people. In other words, it could have been efficient for all people had God intended it to be, but He didn't. Hence, the atonement is sufficient for all whom it was purposed, namely, the elect. It could have been sufficient for all, but it is not because that was not God's design.
Have you read God's Greater Glory by Ware? He makes quite a few statements that makes me believe he accepted limited atonement.
The only "benefit" a reprobate would obtain from the atonment would be the fact that God has not finished gathering the elect yet, and thus the world continues and the life of the reprobate is spared temporarily.