deathtolife
Puritan Board Freshman
I am still banging out covenant theology, though convinced, I am trying to understand the distinction that some reformed theologians make with the law of God.
Is it hermeneutically sound to be making this 3 fold distinction?
What are the Scriptural reasons for this? Is this not readining into the text?
What then is the law of Christ?
If there are threads already answering these types of question may you please direct me? Any responses would be greatly appreciated.
Grace of our Lord Jesus be with you all!
Is it hermeneutically sound to be making this 3 fold distinction?
What are the Scriptural reasons for this? Is this not readining into the text?
What then is the law of Christ?
If there are threads already answering these types of question may you please direct me? Any responses would be greatly appreciated.
Grace of our Lord Jesus be with you all!