I dont' know if this is the right place to post this, so move this to an appropriate section, mods
Romans 9:6-8
9 But it is not as though the word of God has failed For they are not all Israel who are descended from Israel;
7 nor are they all children because they are Abraham's descendants, but: "THROUGH ISAAC YOUR DESCENDANTS WILL BE NAMED."
8 That is, it is not the children of the flesh who are children of God, but the children of the promise are regarded as descendants.
I've been learning and pondering what this means and have reached the conclusion that Paul was speaking of not only the new covenant but the old as well.
In the OT, does the term "Israel" mean the true believers when speaking of spiritual salvation?
And in the NT, when Jesus says "I have come only for the lost sheep of the house of Israel", when speaking to the gentile "dog" (Matt 15:22-28), it is my understanding (with this concept in mind) that He was making a point to His audience by saying this and helping the gentile woman anyway, that she WAS of the house if Israel ... spiritual Israel, since she demonstrated that she had faith.
Is this consistent?
Anyone else have this same view?
Thanks
Romans 9:6-8
9 But it is not as though the word of God has failed For they are not all Israel who are descended from Israel;
7 nor are they all children because they are Abraham's descendants, but: "THROUGH ISAAC YOUR DESCENDANTS WILL BE NAMED."
8 That is, it is not the children of the flesh who are children of God, but the children of the promise are regarded as descendants.
I've been learning and pondering what this means and have reached the conclusion that Paul was speaking of not only the new covenant but the old as well.
In the OT, does the term "Israel" mean the true believers when speaking of spiritual salvation?
And in the NT, when Jesus says "I have come only for the lost sheep of the house of Israel", when speaking to the gentile "dog" (Matt 15:22-28), it is my understanding (with this concept in mind) that He was making a point to His audience by saying this and helping the gentile woman anyway, that she WAS of the house if Israel ... spiritual Israel, since she demonstrated that she had faith.
Is this consistent?
Anyone else have this same view?
Thanks