Thank you Paul and Chris for your comments.
Do you guys think that Thorn's argument,even if true, cannot account for consciousness? I understand Thorn to say that for consciousness to be aware of something, it (consciousness) must exist already, therefore existence is logically prior to consciousness. We can think of something existing without any consciousness around to be aware of this existence, but we can't think of consciousness existing before existence. From this doesn't Thorn conclude that existence must therefore be *chronologically* prior to consciousness?
But how does he account for consciousness then? How does non-consciousness beget consciousness? It seems to my admittedly obtuse mind that both existence and consciousness must have existed eternally. Because existence must be *logically* prior to consciousness does not require it to be *chronologically* prior to consciousness.
An analogy from mathematics might help (at least I hope it helps - I hope it's relevant too!): if in one column we list all the whole numbers (ie 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9, etc.) but in the other column we list all the prime numbers - numbers divisible by 1 and itself - (ie 2,3,5,7,11,13,17,19,23,29, etc.), which column will have the most numbers? We might be tempted to say that column with all the whole numbers will have the most numbers since whole numbers are found more frequently than prime numbers (only 25% percent of the numbers between 1 and 100, 17% of the numbers between 1 and 1000, and 7% of the numbers between 1 and 1,000,000 are prime numbers) However the number in each column is the same: infinity!
Likewise, no matter how much Thorn tries to get existence "behind" consciousness, he can't.
Does this make sense?
I didn't think so either.
Ricky "philosophical quack, at your service," Reformed