I wanted to run this by the board for feedback and/or correction:
Let me first say that I believe in the Mosaic authorship of the Pentateuch, and do not believe that the two Genesis accounts came from two different pens, or that they are contradictory.
Usually people seem to take two different approaches in affirming the orthodox opinion, namely, demonstrating that there are no contradictions between the two "texts", and showing the absurdity of positing separate authors just because separate names were used.
I've been thinking about this for the last couple days, and wondered if we're (or probably just me... I'm not as up to speed on things as many on here) missing something in Scripture in an overreaction to the critical view.
As in, if all of Scripture is inspired and planned out meticulously, is there a theological reason for the shift from Elohim to YHWH? I haven't fully arrived at an understanding of Exodus 6:3, but in my half-cooked ideas I've always thought of YHWH as, in some sense, a particularly covenantal name of God.
So by using Elohim when talking about the creation of "everything", and switching to YHWH in the more personal account of God forming man from the dust of the earth, is Moses making the point (via the name-change) that God sustains a different or more special relationship to man than He does the rest of the creation?
And, if in some sense (and I probably need corrected on this point) YHWH is the covenant name of God, would the fact that YHWH is used in the creation account undergird the fact that God always relates to man via covenant, and possibly endorse the Covenant of Works?
Or is that a stretch?
I'm not just wondering if its "compatible"... but if that's actually what Scripture is actually teaching.
P.S., and if all that is true, wouldn't it be helpful to point that out to various critical scholars, as in, showing a rationale for the change, instead of just saying, "Moses is free to use whatever words he wants"?
Let me first say that I believe in the Mosaic authorship of the Pentateuch, and do not believe that the two Genesis accounts came from two different pens, or that they are contradictory.
Usually people seem to take two different approaches in affirming the orthodox opinion, namely, demonstrating that there are no contradictions between the two "texts", and showing the absurdity of positing separate authors just because separate names were used.
I've been thinking about this for the last couple days, and wondered if we're (or probably just me... I'm not as up to speed on things as many on here) missing something in Scripture in an overreaction to the critical view.
As in, if all of Scripture is inspired and planned out meticulously, is there a theological reason for the shift from Elohim to YHWH? I haven't fully arrived at an understanding of Exodus 6:3, but in my half-cooked ideas I've always thought of YHWH as, in some sense, a particularly covenantal name of God.
So by using Elohim when talking about the creation of "everything", and switching to YHWH in the more personal account of God forming man from the dust of the earth, is Moses making the point (via the name-change) that God sustains a different or more special relationship to man than He does the rest of the creation?
And, if in some sense (and I probably need corrected on this point) YHWH is the covenant name of God, would the fact that YHWH is used in the creation account undergird the fact that God always relates to man via covenant, and possibly endorse the Covenant of Works?
Or is that a stretch?
I'm not just wondering if its "compatible"... but if that's actually what Scripture is actually teaching.
P.S., and if all that is true, wouldn't it be helpful to point that out to various critical scholars, as in, showing a rationale for the change, instead of just saying, "Moses is free to use whatever words he wants"?
