RamistThomist
Puritanboard Clerk
But Richard Cameron clearly prophesied in the sense of future foretellings. I know we went back and forth on this, and maybe Maurice Grant was naive and gullible, but even assuming it didn't happen, Grant is reading prophecy in a sense of future telling.
Where did Cameron say, Thus saith the Lord, and call upon the church to receive his utterance as the word of the Lord? If he did not do this, then he did not prophesy in the biblical sense of the term.
Why would he use a sense of the term other than biblical? It seems to create confusion.
My larger point was not whether Cameron had the specific, Pauline gift of prophesy (I actually think he did, but no matter). Perhaps "word of knowledge" is more precise. All I am trying to point out was that Cameron had access to knowledge not attainable by human means. Call it what you will.