Thanks, everyone. These materials have all been very helpful for me. One of the things I'm most interested in learning about is question #2 from the discussion at Pulpit Magazine, namely, what the purpose of the gifts in the Old and New Testaments was and how that shapes our understanding of their continued (or for our case, ceased) usage. As far as question #1 from the same discussion goes, it was interesting to me that one of the people who replied in favor of Continuationism said that, while he believes the same gifts still function, they don't (and should not be expected to) function to the same degree. My question is, if the Continuationist doesn't see any biblical evidence to support the cessation of the gifts at the end of the Apostolic Age, on what grounds would he assert that they shouldn't function to the same degree (either the same degree of power or same degree of frequency)? It seems to me that if you believe the gifts haven't ceased there's no reason to believe that they shouldn't be as frequent or as powerful as they were during the Apostolic Age.