I often hear the words amillennialism and postmillennialism defined the following way:
An amillennialist believes that Christ will return after the millennium, but the nations will not be Christianized prior to his return.
A postmillennialist believes that Christ will return after the millennium, and the nations will be Christianized prior to his return.
My understanding, though, is that the words are properly defined as such:
An amillennialist believes that the Church Age is the millennium, regardless of whether he believes the nations will be Christianized or not.
A postmillennialist believes that Christ will return after the millennium, regardless of whether he believes the nations will be Christianized or not.
I notice that while the first two definitions - the more common ones - do not overlap, the second set of definitions leave room for overlap between views. Are my definitions (the second set) correct or do they need some work? Is the first set of definitions correct; and if not, why and when did the words come to be commonly used that way?
An amillennialist believes that Christ will return after the millennium, but the nations will not be Christianized prior to his return.
A postmillennialist believes that Christ will return after the millennium, and the nations will be Christianized prior to his return.
My understanding, though, is that the words are properly defined as such:
An amillennialist believes that the Church Age is the millennium, regardless of whether he believes the nations will be Christianized or not.
A postmillennialist believes that Christ will return after the millennium, regardless of whether he believes the nations will be Christianized or not.
I notice that while the first two definitions - the more common ones - do not overlap, the second set of definitions leave room for overlap between views. Are my definitions (the second set) correct or do they need some work? Is the first set of definitions correct; and if not, why and when did the words come to be commonly used that way?