Who he/He?

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NaphtaliPress

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Unless citing scripture I prefer to captalize pronouns in reference to any of the Persons of the Godhead. This rather awkard sentence throws me and I remain unsure I've rendered the final pronouns correctly as to the reference. Thoughts? I believe they are both either lower case, if in reference to the man, or upper case if to God. Classically awkwardly phrased James Durham text.
"Though the man be empty-handed for the time and has not in himself whereupon he can be for the honor of God, either by suffering or doing, he may with humble boldness present his suit to God and expect from Him whatsoever is good and needful for the man himself and whatever may be for His own honor in him and by him."
 
That looks like you got it exactly right, Chris. It couldn't be a reference to God when he says "in him and by him" because it's about what he can expect from God. But "His own honor" is clearly about God.
 
But "His own honor" is clearly about God.

Plus the statement in question answers to the concession: "and has not in himself whereupon he can be for the honor of God."

The only thing missing is the "u" in "honour." :)
 
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