Credobaptist objection

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bnjam

Puritan Board Freshman
Bertrand
PCA
Edmonton, Alberta

Have a discussion scheduled with my credobaptist friend this weekend who recently had his first child.

Three typical objections of his;
1. It says those who believe should be baptized, children can't make a profession.
2. Why should we baptize children who have no mental capacity to understand the sign they're taking?
3. I will dedicate my baby instead of baptizing him.

I have a rough idea of how to answer each, but I hope with your wealth of knowledge you may help me approach it better.

Thank you!
 
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Have a discussion scheduled with my credobaptist friend this weekend who recently had his first child.

That is a good entry point to tease out the way that fatherhood seeks the "whole" good of the child. Even the desire to "dedicate" demonstrates this instinct. But then it raises the question whether God would make provision for us to seek out this "whole" good. Is His covenant deficient? No, not in any way. Because when He takes a man into covenant with Himself He takes the "whole" of that man, he and all that he has. The biblical pattern is covenant households. The NT pattern is household baptism.

1. It says those who believe should be baptized, children can't make a profession.

Those who believed were adults. They were baptised on profession of faith because they were converting to the Christian faith. What about children? Are they to be damned? Are they to be left outside the Christian faith? Not at all. Salvation is for all kinds of men. Baptism is the sign of salvation and indicates that the child, too, has been converted to the Christian faith even if he has not yet made a personal profession of faith. Else were they unclean; but now are they holy.

2. Why should we baptize children who have no mental capacity to understand the sign they're taking?

Because the sign is objective, not subjective. It is God's sign to us, not our sign to Him. By it God signifies and seals our ingrafting into the covenant. Our consciousness of that is simply our recognition of the truth of it. Hence children are raised in the consciousness of it with the pressing duty to believe and repent.

3. I will dedicate my baby instead of baptizing him.

A dry baptism. Akin to an Israelite saying I will not circumcise my child; I will only dedicate him to the Lord. How is that a dedication that rejects God's ordinance? It is more a sign of rebellion.
 
As a baptist, I don’t like baby dedications as I don’t see the clear biblical justification.

The pattern in Acts is set in the beginning of the book - repent and be baptized and believe the Apostolic preached word concerning Jesus.

Now when they heard this they were cut to the heart, and said to Peter and the rest of the apostles, “Brothers, what shall we do?” 38 And Peter said to them, “Repent and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins, and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. 39 For the promise is for you and for your children and for all who are far off, everyone whom the Lord our God calls to himself.” 40 And with many other words he bore witness and continued to exhort them, saying, “Save yourselves from this crooked generation.” 41 So those who received his word were baptized, and there were added that day about three thousand souls. (Acts 2:37–41, ESV)

All who received Peter’s word were baptized, it says nothing about their children. The promise of forgiveness of sins and receiving the Spirit is for everyone who believes including those who are “far off” (I take that as referring to the Gentiles which fits perfectly with the flow and progression of Acts).

I believe it is more valid to assume that this pattern is followed in all subsequent baptism accounts in Acts where further details are not mentioned. Assuming there were infants in the households who were baptized is an assumption and not mentioned in the text. It is an assumption based on a belief that baptism has replaced circumcision as a sign of the New Covenant.

There are many places in the New Testament where it would it would make sense to clearly state baptism has replaced circumcision, especially in Galatians, but it never does so, ever. Paul could have solved a lot of problems with the Judaizers if he simply said that very thing.
 
Are they to be damned? Are they to be left outside the Christian faith? Not at all. Salvation is for all kinds of men. Baptism is the sign of salvation and indicates that the child, too, has been converted to the Christian faith even if he has not yet made a personal profession of faith. Else were they unclean; but now are they holy.

Could you elaborate on this a little? I understand (roughly) the visible and invisible aspects of the Church. But mentally I cannot grasp the idea that one could be a part of the Christian faith but it remains to be seen if you actually are.

One key point that is hindering my acceptance of paedobaptism is the idea that a child could actually be in covenant with Christ, and thus Christ mediates for him, but later in life it can be shown to have no effect? My mind is nagging at me as I must be missing something.
 
A child knows who its mother is in a deeper sense than ideation. A child may be regenerated, aware of the Lord's presence in its life and heart before it "understands", even as John lept for joy in his mother's womb:

Luke 1:41-44:

"And it came to pass, that, when Elisabeth heard the salutation of Mary, the babe leaped in her womb; and Elisabeth was filled with the Holy Ghost: And she spake out with a loud voice, and said, Blessed art thou among women, and blessed is the fruit of thy womb. And whence is this to me, that the mother of my Lord should come to me? For, lo, as soon as the voice of thy salutation sounded in mine ears, the babe leaped in my womb for joy."

Despite these realities, we godly baptize all our children because it is (and was, in circumcision of old) God's command; not all our children are elect, but for the sake of the elect we baptize all.

We heed the command given to Abraham, even as we receive the promise:

Gal 3:29 JKV, "And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise." The promise? God is our God, and the God of our seed.
 
One key point that is hindering my acceptance of paedobaptism is the idea that a child could actually be in covenant with Christ, and thus Christ mediates for him, but later in life it can be shown to have no effect? My mind is nagging at me as I must be missing something.

I have heard this line of thinking before, from a very good (Baptist) friend of mine. I would read up on Berkhof's language on the internal-eternal distinction. He calls it 'communion of life' and 'a purely legal relationship.' He gets it from Vos. I find this language helpful. The infant in the covenant has the latter but not necessarily the former. They have the latter by virtue of their birth into the Christian home - they really have no other choice. It is expected that Christian parents will raise them in the fear and admonition of the Lord. The former (communion of life) is given only to the elect, but often comes about within the legal relationship established at birth (not always though, such as for the adult convert).

The child is in a purely legal relationship with Christ, which can be scorned. They have been sanctified by the blood of the covenant, but can tread upon it. They are the people of the Lord, yet can be judged (Heb 10:29-31). Christ is their mediator in this sense alone, until they are born again, which is for the elect alone. But this election plays out in space-time through covenant. So we include the children because God loves working generationally, and has promised to do so, generally.

Under the Baptist scheme, the covenant child is expected to have the former without the latter. Communion life without the promises held forth to him, without being raised in the fear and admonition of the Lord. They are expected to be treated like the unconverted adult, which I eventually found to be untenable.

Hope that helps. I am new to all this, so I apologize for anything unclear.
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The promise of forgiveness of sins and receiving the Spirit is for everyone who believes including those who are “far off” (I take that as referring to the Gentiles which fits perfectly with the flow and progression of Acts).
Hi Jim, hope you're well.

I actually think this supports a paedobaptist perspective. It is precisely when the Gentiles come into the picture (chs. 11-16) that households start to be emphasized. Why? Because Luke is emphasizing that the Gentiles benefit from the generational nature of the covenant as well. Jews understood it was for their children - Gentiles needed to learn that.

Basically, I see one genealogical line running from Abraham to Christ, with many individuals and their progeny cut off (Ishmael, Esau, other unfaithful descendants), and many individuals and their progeny grafted in (Rahab, Ruth, etc.) that then EXPLODES after the Gentiles are grafted in, with each Lydia, Cornelius, and Philippian jailer being a 'new Abraham' in the sense that their genealogical lines are forever transformed by Christ. Through Abraham all the families of the earth will be blessed.

This is the big picture I see in Acts, and one of the things I think Luke is attaching to his 'thesis' in 1:8, from Jerusalem, to Judea and Samaria, to the ends of the earth.

To the OP, I'm sorry if we're hijacking this thread. Say the word and I can start a new one.
 
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Could you elaborate on this a little? I understand (roughly) the visible and invisible aspects of the Church. But mentally I cannot grasp the idea that one could be a part of the Christian faith but it remains to be seen if you actually are.

Do all babies who die in infancy go to hell? Or is there salvation for them? If they are saved, how? Is it by the blood and righteousness of Christ being applied to them? If so, that is the Christian faith. They are in or out. There is no limbus for them. Heaven or hell. The mechanics of how faith works in infants is beyond our ability to articulate, but it is there in Scripture in places like Pss. 22 and 71. For many the consciousness of their covenant relation to God has simply grown up with them.

On the other hand, there are people who profess faith, who will tell you they did not have true faith, but were baptised, and later came to a true faith. Their baptism served in some sense as an entrance into covenant consciousness in a manner that is similar to the infant, and in this state they enjoyed the formation of faith. We simply cannot tell when the "seed" is planted, and it grows up we "know not how," as the parable says. All is of grace!

Finally, there are people in adulthood who profess faith and are baptised, who are false professors and might remain that way. Where do they stand? We cannot tell who they are. But they are in the church and enjoying its privileges, and Christians around them have some hope for their salvation.

All this to say, that we need a broad umbrella for the visible church as holding forth the means of grace and salvation to sinners, and to do so in a way that recognises there are differences among men.



One key point that is hindering my acceptance of paedobaptism is the idea that a child could actually be in covenant with Christ, and thus Christ mediates for him, but later in life it can be shown to have no effect? My mind is nagging at me as I must be missing something.

It sounds like Judas. Christ is not their mediator. Christ administers grace through means and means are available for elect and reprobate. Many are called but few are chosen. Jacob is loved and Esau is hated from infancy before they did anything good or bad. The Lord knoweth them that are His.
 
All who received Peter’s word were baptized, it says nothing about their children. The promise of forgiveness of sins and receiving the Spirit is for everyone who believes including those who are “far off” (I take that as referring to the Gentiles which fits perfectly with the flow and progression of Acts).

Forgive my ignorance as I may not be well read as much as you do, but I find this rendition of the reading of the household baptisms to be inconsistent. WE KNOW of the OT and early NT that household always meant the entirety of one's family including infants and slaves, why would household suddenly change meaning in the the book of Acts to a limited number? And if it ever did, why didn't Luke add qualifiers like 'those who believed in the household were baptized'? Scripture is pretty consistent on its use of household. Let me quote a few instances of households either saved/spared or punished/killed due to the faith or sin of one member of that family(I asked AI to summarize them for me, didn't want to make it too lengthy by quoting the scriptures directly):

Spared or Saved
  • Noah: God instructed Noah to enter the ark with his entire household because of his righteousness, saving them from the Great Flood Genesis 7:1.
  • Lot: Two angels warned Lot to flee the destruction of Sodom with his wife and daughters, sparing them because they were kin to Abraham Genesis 19:12–13.
  • Rahab: After she hid the Jewish spies, Joshua spared Rahab, her parents, her siblings, and everyone who belonged to her during the conquest of Jericho Joshua 6:23–25.
  • Israelite Households (Passover): During the final plague in Egypt, every household that marked their doorposts with lamb's blood was spared from the angel of death Exodus 12:12–13.
  • Obed-Edom: While the Ark of the Covenant remained at his house, the Lord blessed Obed-Edom and his entire household 2 Samuel 6:11.
  • The Man of Bethel (Luz): When the "house of Joseph" (the tribes of Ephraim and Manasseh) went to attack Bethel, they sent spies who caught a man leaving the city. They promised to spare him if he showed them the entrance to the city. He complied, and while the Israelites put the rest of the city to the sword, they spared the man and his whole family Judges 1:24–25

Killed or Punished
  • Achan: For stealing forbidden spoils from Jericho, Achan and his entire family were stoned and burned Joshua 7:24–26.
  • Dathan and Abiram: For rebelling against Moses, the earth opened and swallowed them along with their households, tents, and all their substance Deuteronomy 11:6.
  • Ahab: Because of his extreme wickedness, the prophet Elijah declared that God would "sweep up" and cut off the entire house of Ahab, which was later carried out by Jehu 1 Kings 21:21–22.
  • Jeroboam: Due to his idolatry, God pronounced that He would bring disaster upon the house of Jeroboam and "cut off" every male from his family 1 Kings 14:10–14.
  • Korah: Leading a rebellion alongside Dathan and Abiram, Korah was swallowed by the earth with his followers and their households Numbers 16:31–33.
As we can see, it's pretty clear that God dealt with people not in the individualistic manner by which Baptists claim, but covenantally towards said person and his/her household. How or when did God ever divorce himself from dealing with man in such manner?


"The promise of forgiveness of sins and receiving the Spirit is for everyone who believes including those who are “far off” (I take that as referring to the Gentiles which fits perfectly with the flow and progression of Acts)."

I agree that "those who are far off" refers to the gentiles. However, the verse reads "For the promise is for you and your children, and for all who are far away,....". Why would Peter expressly quote the promise that was made to Abraham and his offspring after him, exactly as was in Gen 17, where his offspring received a sign after the promise was made, if his intention was to *exclude* children from the promise? Why did he need to quote this specific reference of the Old Testament, and if he intended to exclude children of believers until they had some mental capacity to believe, why didn't Peter make it clear the promise was for everyone who believes and all those who are far off? Why even need to add children?
 
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Do all babies who die in infancy go to hell? Or is there salvation for them? If they are saved, how? Is it by the blood and righteousness of Christ being applied to them? If so, that is the Christian faith. They are in or out. There is no limbus for them. Heaven or hell. The mechanics of how faith works in infants is beyond our ability to articulate, but it is there in Scripture in places like Pss. 22 and 71. For many the consciousness of their covenant relation to God has simply grown up with them.

On the other hand, there are people who profess faith, who will tell you they did not have true faith, but were baptised, and later came to a true faith. Their baptism served in some sense as an entrance into covenant consciousness in a manner that is similar to the infant, and in this state they enjoyed the formation of faith. We simply cannot tell when the "seed" is planted, and it grows up we "know not how," as the parable says. All is of grace!

Finally, there are people in adulthood who profess faith and are baptised, who are false professors and might remain that way. Where do they stand? We cannot tell who they are. But they are in the church and enjoying its privileges, and Christians around them have some hope for their salvation.

All this to say, that we need a broad umbrella for the visible church as holding forth the means of grace and salvation to sinners, and to do so in a way that recognises there are differences among men.





It sounds like Judas. Christ is not their mediator. Christ administers grace through means and means are available for elect and reprobate. Many are called but few are chosen. Jacob is loved and Esau is hated from infancy before they did anything good or bad. The Lord knoweth them that are His.
Thank you. That was quite helpful.
 
The pattern in Acts is set in the beginning of the book - repent and be baptized and believe the Apostolic preached word concerning Jesus.
I think this is a methodological friction point, too “zoomed in.” See the baptism of the Flood, see the baptism of all Israel, see household inclusion in both testaments. There is a binding pattern but it is from earlier on than Acts 2.

My two cents.
 
To the OP: Thank you for not posting this in Paedo Answers only Forum!

I have never heard a satisfactory answer as to what it means for a child to be in the covenant but not saved. The sign and seal (as defined by WCF) holding them by waters of infant baptism but their reprobate state can hold even unto eternity in some cases.

EX: when people point out to Noah's entire household being saved from the Flood, that does not mean that the typology holds into the spiritual actuality of all the members within the ark. If Ham or Canaan or both are found reprobate in eternity, that does not mean the type has been undermined - anymore that it means the deliverance of the hardhearted Israelites from the judgment of God on the firstborn in the Passover and their deliverance through the Red Sea (a type of baptism see 1 Cor. 10) does not mean all individuals that walked safely to the other side were regenerate.

I. On Duties of Parents in Both Systems in an Inter-faith Dialogue

Often, almost inevitably so, paedobaptists will occasionally point their finger at us non-baptizing parents and accuse us of denying our children grace inherent within infant baptism. But this seems an odd point to make at one who doesn't even believe in such a thing.

For if baptism is indeed both sign and seal as WCF claims, then they would be right: I was remiss in not baptizing my daughter and only by the grace of God was she baptized making a credible profession of faith 4 years ago.

.... yet doesn't it also follow that if I HAD baptized my daughter in infancy and if she had also grown in faith and holiness, that it would not also be the grace of God working in both our faith as parents and her faith as well, and not the H2O poured out in her infancy? I know paedobaptists would affirm. I get that. My point is that it works vice versa as well.

Usually credobaptists do not make such accusations against the extra works of infant baptism and generally pray for the day when your children give a credible profession of faith such that they become communicant members and partake of the sacrament of the Lord's table.

1689 Appendix affirmed paedobaptist churches were true congregations of Christ, (which is why many credo churches did not require "re-baptism" for paedobaptists members switching affliliations in their adulthoods - one faith, one Lord, one baptism). They made a distinction between "valid" and "legal" and declared infant baptisms "invalid" in mode and subject, yet if the child grows into a professing believer with evidence of the fruit of the Spirit in its fullness and is a communicant member partaking of the Lord's Supper, they called their infant baptism "legal" as in covered by the grace of God despite its invalidity.

It makes no sense for either side to try and communicate the horror or discomfort one feels as they consider the non-Scriptural practice of the other and try to appeal to the potential consequences when - as I understand this - God has given grace on those who are mistaken and in error. Love covers a multitude of sins, and this line of dialogue seems not only fruitless but pointless to pursue.

These "points" are coming at us Baptists downstream of the issue at hand: the seal of the Spirit and the sign of baptism.

II. Do Baptists confuse the sign with the thing signified?

No.

Next point. (Hahahaha just kidding)

We need to define "seal" very carefully.

Dr. William Mounce says that:

Ancient documents were often sealed using a waxy substance not only to close them up and thereby protect the contents but also to authenticate the document by imprinting the seal (called a bulla) of the writer in the soft wax (cf. Jer. 32:11)…A seal in the ancient world established and expressed ownership (Gen. 4:15; Exod. 13:9; Deut. 6:8; Ezek. 9:4; Rev. 9:4; 13:16-17)


As far as I understand (and I could be wrong here) paedobaptists want to eat their cake and have it too when it comes to "seal" and "sign".

They will appeal to Rom. 4:11 and Col. 2:11-12 and say essentially "See, just like circumcision functioned as a sign and seal of the Abrahamic covenant, so now baptism serves as a sign and seal of the New Covenant".

John Gill says:

the seal by which they are sealed, is not any of the ordinances, as circumcision under the Old Testament, or baptism, or the Lord’s supper under the New; for these are no seals, nor are they ever so called; but the Spirit of God himself, as the Holy Spirit of promise; for the same who, in the next clause, is called the earnest, is the seal

Is the Spirit of God the seal of the New Covenant? 2 Cor. 1:22 links the seal and the gift of the Spirit. Eph. 1:13 says we are sealed with the promise (given and received) of the Holy Spirit, and Eph. 4:30 says we are sealed by the Holy Spirit for the day of redemption.

Particular Baptists of 1689 (well several decades before really) denied this link between circumcision and baptism.

The only Mediator of anyone saved is Christ from the days of Adam to the end of all things. The only justification for those in the Covenant of Grace is by faith alone in Christ alone - promised in the Old Testament and fulfilled in the New.

Circumcision of the flesh is a type of the circumcision of the heart by the seal of the Holy Spirit, not baptism - which is the sign of that thing signified.

Now, I want to be clear; there is only ONE Covenant of Grace: the New Covenant. And it is only by circumcision of the heart, born again, regeneration by which anyone can have saving faith to proclaim. Period. Back then and even now.

Yet, back then was the promise of the blood of Christ and in God's grace, the economy of the covenants was such that saving faith could be expressed and applied by God's grace for sanctification in an entirely different manner.

John Owen lays out the differences between the Old and New:
Difference 1

  • These two covenants differ in the circumstance of time as to their promulgation, declaration, and establishment. The first covenant was made at the time that God brought the children of Israel out of Egypt, and took its date from the third month after their coming up from thence, Ex 19:24. From the time of what is reported in the latter place, wherein the people give their actual consent unto the terms of it, it began its formal obligation as a covenant. The new covenant was declared and made known “in the latter days,” Heb. 1:1-2; “in the dispensation of the fullness of times,” Eph. 1:10. And it took date, as a covenant formally obliging the whole church, from the death, resurrection, ascension of Christ, and sending of the Holy Ghost.
Difference 2

  • They differ in the circumstance of place as to their promulgation; which the Scripture also taketh notice of. The first was declared on mount Sinai; the manner whereof, and the station of the people in receiving the law Ex 19:18. The other was declared on mount Zion, and the law of it went forth from Jerusalem, Isa 2:3. This difference, with many remarkable instances from it, our apostle insists on, Gal 4:24-26. And it “answereth,” or “is placed in the same series, rank, and order with Jerusalem,” namely, in the opposition of the two covenants. For as the new covenant, the covenant of promise, giving freedom and liberty, was given at Jerusalem, in the death and resurrection of Christ, with the preaching of the gospel which ensued thereon; so the old covenant, that brought the people into bondage, was given at mount Sinai in Arabia.
Difference 3

They differ in the manner of their promulgation and establishment.

  1. Of the Old Covenant:
    1. The dread and terror of the outward appearance on mount Sinai, which filled all the people, yea, Moses himself, with fear and trembling, Matt. 12:18-21; Ex. 19:16; 20:18-19. Together herewith was a spirit of fear and bondage administered unto all the people, so as that they chose to keep at a distance, and not draw nigh unto God, Deut. 5:23-27.
    2. That it was given by the ministry and “disposition of angels,” Acts 7:53; Gal. 3:19. Hence the people were in a sense “put in subjection unto angels,” and they had an authoritative ministry in that covenant.
  2. Of the New Covenant:
    1. The Son of God in his own person did declare it. This he “spake from heaven,” as the apostle observes; in opposition unto the giving of the law “on the earth,” Heb. 12:25. Yet did he speak on the earth also; the mystery whereof himself declares, John 3:13. And he did all things that belonged unto the establishment of this covenant in a spirit of meekness and condescension, with the highest evidence of love, grace, and compassion, encouraging and inviting the weary, the burdened, the heavy and laden to come unto him. And by his Spirit he makes his disciples to carry on the same work until the covenant was fully declared, Heb. 2:3. See John 1:17-18.
    2. And the whole ministry of angels, in the giving of this covenant, was merely in a way of service and obedience unto Christ
Difference 4

  • They differ in their mediators. The mediator of the first covenant was Moses. “It was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator,” Gal. 3:19. And this was no other but Moses, who was a servant in the house of God, Heb. 3:5. And he was a mediator, as designed of God, so chosen of the people, in that dread and consternation which befell them upon the terrible promulgation of the law. But the mediator of the new covenant is the Son of God himself 1 Tim. 2:5. He who is the Son, and the Lord over his own house, graciously undertook in his own person to be the mediator of this covenant; and herein it is unspeakably preferred before the old covenant.
Difference 5

  • They differ in their subject-matter, both as unto precepts and promises
    • The Old Covenant absolutely considered:
      1. No promise of grace, to communicate spiritual strength, or to assist us in obedience; nor,
      2. Any of eternal life, no otherwise but as it was contained in the promise of the covenant of works, “The man that doeth these things shall live in them;” and,
      3. Had promises of temporal things in the land of Canaan inseparable from it.
Difference 6

  • They differ, and that principally, in the manner of their dedication and sanction. This is that which gives any thing the formal nature of a covenant or testament. And this is by a sacrifice, wherein there is both bloodshed-ding and death ensuing thereon. Now this, in the confirmation of the old covenant, was only the sacrifice of beasts, whose blood was sprinkled on all the people, Ex. 24:5-8. But the new testament was solemnly confirmed by the sacrifice and blood of Christ himself, Zech. 9:11; Heb. 10:29; 13:20. And the Lord Christ dying as the mediator and surety of the covenant, he purchased all good things for the church; and as a testator bequeathed them unto it.
Difference 7

  • They differ in the priests that were to officiate before God in the behalf of the people. In the old covenant, Aaron and his posterity alone were to discharge that office; in the new, the Son of God himself is the only priest of the church.
Difference 8

  • They differ in the sacrifices whereon the peace and reconciliation with God which is tendered in them doth depend.
Difference 9

  • They differ in the way and manner of their solemn writing or enrolment. The old covenant, as to the principal, fundamental part of it, was “engraven in tables of stone,” which were kept in the ark, Ex. 31:18; Deut. 9:10; 2 Cor 3:7. But the new covenant is written in the “fleshy tables of the hearts” of them that do believe 2 Cor. 3:3; Jer. 31:33.
Difference 10

  • They differ in their ends.
    • Of the Old Covenant, the principal end of the first covenant was to discover sin, to condemn it, and to set bounds unto it.
      1. By conviction: for “by the law is the knowledge of sin;” it convinced sinners, and caused every mouth to be stopped before God.
      2. By condemning the sinner, in an application of the sanction of the law unto his conscience.
      3. By the judgments and punishments wherewith on all occasions it was accompanied. In all it manifested and represented the justice and severity of God.
    • The end of the new covenant is, to declare the love, grace, and mercy of God; and therewith to give repentance, remission of sin, and life eternal.
Difference 11

  • They differed in their effects. For the first covenant being the “ministration of death” and “condemnation,” it brought the minds and spirits of them that were under it into servitude and bondage; whereas spiritual liberty is the immediate effect of the new testament. See Rom. 8:15; 2 Cor. 3:17; Gal. 4:1-7, 24, 26, 30-31; Heb. 2:14-15. This, therefore, we must a little explain.
    • Wherefore the bondage which was the effect of the old covenant arose from several causes concurring unto the effecting of it: —
      1. The renovation of the terms and sanction of the covenant of works contributed much thereunto.
      2. It arose from the manner of the delivery of the law, and God’s entering thereon into covenant with them. This was ordered on purpose to fill them with dread and fear.
      3. From the severity of the penalties annexed unto the transgression of the law. This kept them always anxious and solicitous, not knowing when they were safe or secure.
      4. From the nature of the whole ministry of the law, which was the “ministration of death” and “condemnation,” 2 Cor. 3:7, 9; which declared the desert of every sin to be death, and denounced death unto every sinner, administering by itself no relief unto the minds and consciences of men. So was it the “letter that killed” them that were under its power.
      5. From the darkness of their own minds, in the means, ways, and causes of deliverance from all these things. It is true, they had a promise before of life and salvation, which was not abolished by this covenant, even the promise made unto Abraham; but this belonged not unto this covenant, and the way of its accomplishment, by the incarnation and mediation of the Son of God, was much hidden from them, — yea, from the prophets themselves who yet foretold them. This left them under much bondage. For the principal cause and means of the liberty of believers under the gospel, ariseth from the clear light they have into the mystery of the love and grace of God in Christ.
      6. It was increased by the yoke of a multitude of laws, rites, and ceremonies, imposed on them; which made the whole of their worship a burden unto them, and insupportable, Acts 15:10.
    • On the other hand, the new covenant gives liberty and boldness, the liberty and boldness of children, unto all believers. It is the Spirit of the Son in it that makes us free, or gives us universally all that liberty which is any way needful for us or useful unto us. For “where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is liberty;” namely, to serve God, “not in the oldness of the letter, but in the newness of the spirit.” And it is declared that this was the great end of bringing in the new covenant, in the accomplishment of the promise made unto Abraham, namely, “that we being delivered out of the hand of our enemies, might serve God without fear ...... all the days of our life,” Luke 1:72-75. And we may briefly consider wherein this deliverance and liberty by the new covenant doth consist, which it doth in the things ensuing: —
      1. In our freedom from the commanding power of the law, as to sinless, perfect obedience, in order unto righteousness and justification before God. Its commands we are still subject unto, but not in order unto life and salvation; for unto these ends it is fulfilled in and by the mediator of the new covenant, who is “the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth,” Rom. 10:4.
      2. In our freedom from the condemning power of the law, and the sanction of it in the curse. This being undergone and answered by him who was “made a curse for us,” we are freed from it, Rom. 7:6; Gal. 3:13-14. And therein also are we “delivered from the fear of death,” Heb. 2:15, as it was penal and an entrance into judgment or condemnation, John 5:24.
      3. In our freedom from conscience of sin, Heb. 10:2, — that is, conscience disquieting, perplexing, and condemning our persons; the hearts of all that believe being “sprinkled from an evil conscience” by the blood of Christ.
      4. In our freedom from the whole system of Mosaic worship, in all the rites, and ceremonies, and ordinances of it; which what a burden it was the apostles do declare, Acts 15, and our apostle at large in his epistle to the Galatians.
      5. From all the laws of men in things appertaining unto the worship of God, 1 Cor. 7:23.
    • It remains only that we point out the ways whereby this liberty is communicated unto us under the new covenant. And it is done,—
      1. Principally by the grant and communication of the Spirit of the Son as a Spirit of adoption, giving the freedom, boldness, and liberty of children, John 1:12; Rom. 8:15-17; Gal. 4:6-7. From hence the apostle lays it down as a certain rule, that “where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is liberty,” 2 Cor. 3:17.
      2. It is obtained by the evidence of our justification before God, and the causes of it. This men were greatly in the dark unto under the first covenant, although all stable peace with God doth depend thereon; for it is in the gospel that “the righteousness of God is revealed from faith to faith,” Rom. 1:17. Indeed “the righteousness of God without the law is witnessed by the law and the prophets,” Rom. 3:21; that is, testimony is given to it in legal institutions and the promises recorded in the prophets. But these things were obscure unto them, who were to seek for what was intended under the veils and shadows of priests and sacrifices, atonements and expiations. But our justification before God, in all the causes of it, being now fully revealed and made manifest, it hath a great influence into spiritual liberty and boldness.
      3. By the spiritual light which is given to believers into the mystery of God in Christ. This the apostle affirms to have been “hid in God from the beginning of the world,” Eph. 3:9. It was contrived and prepared in the counsel and wisdom of God from all eternity.
      4. We obtain this liberty by the opening of the way into the holiest, and the entrance we have thereby with boldness unto the throne of grace.
      5. By all the ordinances of gospel-worship, How the ordinances of worship under the old testament did lead the people into bondage hath been declared; but those of the new testament, through their plainness in signification, their immediate respect unto the Lord Christ, with their use and efficacy to guide believers in their communion with God, do all conduce unto our evangelical liberty.
Difference 12

  • They differ greatly with respect unto the dispensation and grant of the Holy Ghost. It is certain that God did grant the gift of the Holy Spirit under the old testament, and his operations during that season, but it is no less certain, that there was always a promise of his more signal effusion upon the confirmation and establishment of the new covenant. See in particular that great promise to this purpose, Joel 2:28-29, as applied and expounded by the apostle Peter, Acts 2:16-18. “the Comforter would not come; but if he so went away, he would send him from the Father,” John 16:7.
Difference 13

  • They differ in the declaration made in them of the kingdom of God. It is the observation of Augustine, that the very name of “the kingdom of heaven” is peculiar unto the new testament. It is true, God reigned in and over the church under the old testament; but his rule was such, and had such a relation unto secular things, especially with respect unto the land of Canaan, and the flourishing condition of the people therein, as that it had an appearance of a kingdom of this world. But now in the gospel, the nature of the kingdom of God, where it is, and wherein it consists, is plainly and evidently declared, unto the unspeakable consolation of believers. For whereas it is now known and experienced to be internal, spiritual, and heavenly, they have no less assured interest in it and advantage by it, in all the troubles which they may undergo in this world, than they could have in the fullest possession of all earthly enjoyments.
Difference 14

  • They differ in their substance and end. The old covenant was typical, shadowy, and removable, Heb. 10:1. The new covenant is substantial and permanent, as containing the body, which is Christ.
Difference 15

  • They differ in the extent of their administration, according unto the will of God. The first was confined unto the posterity of Abraham according to the flesh, and unto them especially in the land of Canaan, Deut. 5:3, with some few proselytes that were joined unto them, excluding all others from the participation of the benefits of it. But the administration of the new covenant is extended unto all nations under heaven; none being excluded, on the account of tongue, language, family, nation, or place of habitation. All have an equal interest in the rising Sun. The partition wall is broken down, and the gates of the new Jerusalem are set open unto all comers upon the gospel invitation. This is frequently taken notice of in the Scripture. See Matt. 28:19; Mark 16:15; John 11:51-52; 12:32; Acts 17:30; 11:18, Gal. 5:6; Eph. 2:11-16; Gen. 3:8-10; Col. 3:10-11; 1 John 2:2; Rev. 5:9.
Difference 16

  • They differ in their efficacy; for the old covenant “made nothing perfect,” it could effect none of the things it did represent, nor introduce that perfect or complete state which God had designed for the church.
Difference 17

  • They differ in their duration: for the one was to be removed, and the other to abide for ever; which must be declared on the ensuing verses.


Benjamin Keach takes Owen's differences between the Old and New (while not necessarily agreeing with the conclusion Coxe drew from Owen) but he applied this to the differences between circumcision of the flesh and baptism:

"3. And whereas you say, Baptism signifies the same things that Circumcision did: it is not true, as will appear to all understanding Men, if they consider these Particulars following, which are so many Disparities, viz.

(1.) Circumcision was a Shadow of Christ to come: Baptism is a Sign he is already come, was dead and buried.

(2.) Circumcision was a Sign of the Covenant made with Abraham and his natural Seed: Baptism is a Sign of the peculiar spiritual Priviledges made to Saints, as such, and no others.

(3.) Circumcision was a Domestick Action, i.e. to be done in the House: Baptism an Ecclesiastick, belonging to the Gospel-Church.

(4.) Circumcision was to be done by the Parents in that respect: Baptism is to be done only by Gospel-Ministers.

(5.) Circumcision was the cutting off the Fore-skin of the Flesh, which drew Blood: Baptism is to be done by dipping the whole Body into the Water without drawing of any Blood.

(6.) Circumcision belonged to Male Children only: Baptism belongs to Males and Females also.

(7.) Circumcision was to be done precisely on the eighth day: Baptism is not limited to any precise day.

(8.) Circumcision made a visible Impression on the Body, which the Party might perceive when he came to Age of Understanding: Baptism leaves no Impression on the Body.

(9.) Circumcision belonged to Abraham‘s House, to his Male Infants only, or such who were bought with his Money, and not the Male Infants of any other godly Men in his days, unless they join themselves to his Family. Baptism belongs to Believers in all Nations.

(10.) Circumcision bound those who came under that Rite, to keep the whole Law of Moses: Baptism signifies we are delivered from that Yoke of Bondage.

(11.) If Circumcision signified the same things, and consequently, particularly the sealing the Covenant of Grace; then those that were circumcised, needed not to be baptized, because sealed before with the same seal of that which signified the same thing: but Christ and all his Apostles, and many others who were circumcised, were nevertheless baptized.

(12.) Circumcision signified the taking away the Sins of the Flesh, or the Circumcision of the Heart: but Baptism signifies the Death, Burial, and Resurrection of Christ, which Circumcision did not.

(13.) Circumcision was to be a Partition-Wall betwixt Jew and Gentile; but Baptism testifieth that Jew and Gentile, Male and Female; Barbarian and Scythian, Bond and Free, are all one in Christ Jesus. Therefore there are invers Disparities and different Significations between Circumcision and Baptism.”

–Benjamin Keach, Rector Rectified and Corrected, 1692, pp. 5–6.

I hope this helps clarify things more not less in either camp.

God bless you all
 
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As a baptist, I don’t like baby dedications as I don’t see the clear biblical justification.

The pattern in Acts is set in the beginning of the book - repent and be baptized and believe the Apostolic preached word concerning Jesus.

Now when they heard this they were cut to the heart, and said to Peter and the rest of the apostles, “Brothers, what shall we do?” 38 And Peter said to them, “Repent and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins, and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. 39 For the promise is for you and for your children and for all who are far off, everyone whom the Lord our God calls to himself.” 40 And with many other words he bore witness and continued to exhort them, saying, “Save yourselves from this crooked generation.” 41 So those who received his word were baptized, and there were added that day about three thousand souls. (Acts 2:37–41, ESV)

All who received Peter’s word were baptized, it says nothing about their children. The promise of forgiveness of sins and receiving the Spirit is for everyone who believes including those who are “far off” (I take that as referring to the Gentiles which fits perfectly with the flow and progression of Acts).

I believe it is more valid to assume that this pattern is followed in all subsequent baptism accounts in Acts where further details are not mentioned. Assuming there were infants in the households who were baptized is an assumption and not mentioned in the text. It is an assumption based on a belief that baptism has replaced circumcision as a sign of the New Covenant.

There are many places in the New Testament where it would it would make sense to clearly state baptism has replaced circumcision, especially in Galatians, but it never does so, ever. Paul could have solved a lot of problems with the Judaizers if he simply said that very thing.
It seems that in the early local assemblies, that water Baptism was the external sign that one had already professed that Jesus was now their Lord and Savior, and was an outward confession to that inward work
 
It seems that in the early local assemblies, that water Baptism was the external sign that one had already professed that Jesus was now their Lord and Savior, and was an outward confession to that inward work
These words demonstrate the fundamental difference in perspective on baptism. The textual evidence is exactly the same, only the interpretation or weight assigned to this or that element is distinctive.

The expressions above show--more clearly than any additional I might add--that the Baptist side views the ritual primarily (not necessarily exclusively) as man's word directed outward, either testifying to God or other men. Whereas, on the other side the main speaker is God. As with preaching, so with administration of sacraments; the church acts as the vocal/signatory vehicle for the divine witness.

What if the witness errs? What of it? God has none of the instrumental failure or lack of omniscience, which is all attributable to the human participants. We do not invalidate anyone's baptism, not even an adult who fails his declaration or lies or denies or renounces his baptism. He has been baptized. But this very thing does invalidate a credo baptism, because the main speaker is the subject of baptism. His state makes or breaks the quality of what is signified. The condition cannot be trued after the fact on the principles by which he came to the font.
 
It seems that in the early local assemblies, that water Baptism was the external sign that one had already professed that Jesus was now their Lord and Savior, and was an outward confession to that inward work

The sign works both inward and outward as a sacrament.

The differences between "main witnesses" (as if we deny the main witness is not the Holy Spirit) or the alleged fragility of the Baptist's definition of baptism is quite overstated (to be charitable).

The following is from Benjamin Beddome's exposition of the Baptist Catechism:

"- Was Christ himself baptized?
Yes.

Then cometh Jesus unto John to be baptized of him,
Matthew 3:13

- Did he thereby confer an honour upon this ordinance?
Yes.

For there came a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased,
Matthew 3:17

- And is this a powerful engagement upon us to submit to it?
Yes.

For thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness,

Matthew 3:15

- Is water baptism a sign of our fellowship with Christ?
Yes.

For as many as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ,

Galatians 3:27

- Is it a sign of our fellowship with him in his death?
Yes.

We are baptized into his death,
Romans 6:3

- And in his burial?
Yes.

We are buried with him in baptism,
Romans 6:4

- And in his resurrection?
Yes.

For we are planted together in the likeness of his resurrection,
Romans 6:5

- Is this fellowship by faith?
Yes.

We are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God,

Colossians 2:12

- Is baptism a sign of our ingrafting into Christ?
Yes.

We are baptized into Jesus Christ,

Romans 6:3

- And of the crucifixion of the old man?
Yes.

Knowing this, that our old man is crucified with him,
Romans 6:6

- And of the destruction of sin?
Yes.

That the body of sin might be destroyed,
Romans 6:6

- Doth it signify the removal of the guilt of sin?
Yes.

Be baptized for the remission of sins,
Acts 2:38

- And the washing away the filth of it?
Yes.

Be baptized and wash away thy sins,
Acts 22:16

- But is baptism of itself sufficient for any of these purposes?
No.

For it is the blood of Christ that cleanseth us from all sin,
1 John 1:7

- Is baptism an engagement to yield ourselves unto God?
Yes.

Yield yourselves unto God as those that are alive from the dead,
Romans 6:13

- And to live in brotherly love?
Yes.

For we are baptized into one body,
1 Corinthians 12:13

- And to walk in newness of life?
Yes.

We also should walk in newness of life,
Romans 6:4

- And was it designed to be a standing ordinance in the church of Christ?
Yes.

To the end of the world,
Matthew 28:20"
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------


Now, in the case of one baptized but later fails his declaration or lies or denies or renounces his baptism (Judas comes to mind, possibly Simon the sorcerror in Acts 8 and sadly the case for too many known), that simply falls into the case of praying for the apostate's softness of heart as opposed to hardness of heart (1689 5.6) and no one makes any claim as to if his baptism was valid or not for that would entail knowing if the inward seal of the Holy Spirit was :

1) genuine-as-he-currently-backslides or

2) non-existent because he was always a false professor and was never regenerated and was always in rebellion.

I honestly do not see how it is any different for the paedobaptist here in these cases either. But I could be missing something.
 
@No Other Name Hope you're well. I will try to respond to you - not a full or comprehensive response, but look at a few points worth responding to.

As far as your point 1, I honestly had a hard time following.

As far as point 2, here are some of my thoughts:
"See, just like circumcision functioned as a sign and seal of the Abrahamic covenant, so now baptism serves as a sign and seal of the New Covenant".
Yes

Is the Spirit of God the seal of the New Covenant? 2 Cor. 1:22 links the seal and the gift of the Spirit. Eph. 1:13 says we are sealed with the promise (given and received) of the Holy Spirit, and Eph. 4:30 says we are sealed by the Holy Spirit for the day of redemption.
Yes, but don't disconnect the sign from the thing signified. What is baptism a sign of? What does it point to? Acts 10:44-48, a sign of the Holy Spirit. So there is sacramental language to keep in mind. Titus 3 is a great example. I would also say the term seal is being used in different ways here, with regard to the Spirit and the language used in Rom 4 and then applied to Baptism. Also, 2 Cor doesn't say the seal is the Spirit. 2 Cor could have water baptism in view for all I know - it comports well with Acts 10 where Peter clearly teaches that water baptism is linked directly to the reception of the Spirit - the first is a sign of the second (and lest you say 'see they received the Spirit and were baptized, credo', read Acts 8 first. Sign and thing can come in any order.

Circumcision of the flesh is a type of the circumcision of the heart by the seal of the Holy Spirit, not baptism - which is the sign of that thing signified.
Circumcision is a sign of the circumcision of the heart, with typological elements. Why else would Moses right about their need for circumcised hearts? They understood that the cutting of the flesh was a sign of the cutting off of the sin, and their need for cleansing. It is forward-looking, yes, by virtue of its blood-letting, but it isn't merely typological with no spiritual significance for the Jews. Baptism points back to the same reality, but it is historia in view, not ordo. It's bloodless because the blood has been spilled.
Now, I want to be clear; there is only ONE Covenant of Grace: the New Covenant. And it is only by circumcision of the heart, born again, regeneration by which anyone can have saving faith to proclaim. Period. Back then and even now.
But if we reject this claim, does your position fall flat? There are legitimate reasons to reject the 1689 view of the covenants. Also, your second sentence can be true without your first being so. Every evangelical accepts the second.
Circumcision was a Shadow of Christ to come: Baptism is a Sign he is already come, was dead and buried.
Fine, but the last two words are unnecessary.
(2.) Circumcision was a Sign of the Covenant made with Abraham and his natural Seed: Baptism is a Sign of the peculiar spiritual Priviledges made to Saints, as such, and no others.
Then why do some non-Jews take the sign of circumcision when entering into covenant with God? See the end of Esther, and many other places. And why do some seed of Abraham stop giving the sign (Edom?)
(5.) Circumcision was the cutting off the Fore-skin of the Flesh, which drew Blood: Baptism is to be done by dipping the whole Body into the Water without drawing of any Blood.
Or the pouring out of water on the person, like the Spirit was poured out at pentecost.
Circumcision belonged to Male Children only: Baptism belongs to Males and Females also.
But no longer an entire class of people: children.
Circumcision was to be done precisely on the eighth day: Baptism is not limited to any precise day.
On the eighth day, the Lord's Day.
(9.) Circumcision belonged to Abraham‘s House, to his Male Infants only, or such who were bought with his Money, and not the Male Infants of any other godly Men in his days, unless they join themselves to his Family. Baptism belongs to Believers in all Nations.
He contradicts his own point 2, see above. And again, this expansion is greatly dulled by the new exclusion of children.
(11.) If Circumcision signified the same things, and consequently, particularly the sealing the Covenant of Grace; then those that were circumcised, needed not to be baptized, because sealed before with the same seal of that which signified the same thing: but Christ and all his Apostles, and many others who were circumcised, were nevertheless baptized.
No, baptism is done in light of the completed work of Christ - of course they had to be baptized. This is a silly argument.
(12.) Circumcision signified the taking away the Sins of the Flesh, or the Circumcision of the Heart: but Baptism signifies the Death, Burial, and Resurrection of Christ, which Circumcision did not.
Titus 3, plus the connection of the giving of the Spirit and baptism in ALL of Acts.

Just a few points of pressure for you. Thanks for the opportunity to stretch the brain a little bit.
 
It seems that in the early local assemblies, that water Baptism was the external sign that one had already professed that Jesus was now their Lord and Savior, and was an outward confession to that inward work
As with preaching, so with administration of sacraments; the church acts as the vocal/signatory vehicle for the divine witness.
Water baptism is either part of the ministry of promise, or some sort of ministry of confirmation. The former view would have it be an objective sign and application. The latter would have it be more subjective. I think it makes way more sense in Acts, but also Acts contextualized by the entire canon, to view baptism as belonging to the ministry of promise/proclamation. (Were the apostles confirming the supposed regeneration of every person they baptized?)

Although in the case of converting adults it will look similar… Helpful here to remember that the covenant runs outward (to embrace converting foreigners), and down (generational lines) in the Old Testament. Not just one or the other.
 
Helpful here to remember that the covenant runs outward (to embrace converting foreigners), and down (generational lines) in the Old Testament. Not just one or the other.
This sounds like a pretty nice point. I've not read this rendition before. Any more possible expatiation on this point? For example the baptist would object that the promise isn't anymore by national origin nor bloodline...
 
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This sounds like a pretty nice point. I've not read this rendition before. Any more possible expatiation on this point? For example the baptist would object that the promise isn't anymore by national origin nor bloodline...
My point is that a stranger/foreigner could embrace Abraham’s religion (aka ours), and partake of the Passover. He must be circumcised first, and he must circumcise all his own before partaking. Exodus 12. This proves that the covenant wasn’t by blood exclusively; nor was it exclusively a family thing. There was “religious conversion” even in the OT. So when we see religious conversion in the NT, well it’s not new.

This is one place where I think baptists err.

Edit: the covenant running down and out is my phraseology but of course not an idea original to me - but an old path, well worn.
 
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Peter's starting point is not subjective profession but objective salvation. He does not say, "Baptism now expresses your faith" or "Baptism now marks your profession." He says, "Baptism now saves you." That is the thesis. Everything that follows is an explanation of how baptism saves. If one begins with "baptism is a profession of faith," Peter's logic becomes incoherent. The entire Noah analogy collapses.

Peter divides baptism into the sign in the outward washing and the thing signified as an inward reality. But that inward reality is not the believer's subjective state. It is the resurrection of Jesus Christ and the pledge of a good conscience toward God. Peter's distinction between the sign and the thing signified will only work if baptism represents an objective salvation. If baptism were fundamentally about profession, then the outward washing would correspond to the outward profession and the inward reality would correspond to the inward sincerity of the profession. At that point the sacrament only serves as a mirror of the self rather than a sign of salvation.

The Noah correspondence demands an external, objective salvation. Noah was not saved by his sincerity, his profession, or an internal disposition. He was saved by an ark. The salvation was outside of him and provided by God. Peter explicitly says baptism corresponds to that. It was entered into by faith, but it was not constituted by a profession of his faith. Noah did not profess his way into salvation; he was placed into an ark. Just as Noah was saved by an objective, God-given salvation, so also are we saved by an objective, God-given salvation. Baptism signifies that salvation.

Let us now apply this to infants. The question is not, Do they make a profession of faith? We have proven that baptism does not signify profession of faith. It signifies salvation. So the real question is, Are infants saved? If they are not saved, if they are damned, then they must not be baptised. If they are saved, then baptism belongs to them as it did to Noah's children, on the basis of the promise, "But with thee will I establish my covenant; and thou shalt come into the ark, thou, and thy sons, and thy wife, and thy sons' wives with thee" (Gen. 6:18).

To be sure, profession is real, necessary, and biblical, but it is not the meaning of baptism. Infants must be urged to come to faith and repentance and to make their own profession of faith as the proper response to salvation. But that profession is not salvation.
 
Have a discussion scheduled with my credobaptist friend this weekend who recently had his first child.
There's many correct approaches people can take to correct this error. I don't mind Baptist in general very much, it's when they think or presume that they can know the state of a potential church member as being a true Christian or not is where they really go awry. Thinking they know things that the Bible clearly says they cannot know because only God sees the heart and we see only the outward person.

1 Samuel 16:7 KJV
[7] But the LORD said unto Samuel, Look not on his countenance, or on the height of his stature; because I have refused him: for the LORD seeth not as man seeth; for man looketh on the outward appearance, but the LORD looketh on the heart.

Although Samuel is being rebuked for his quick judgment, there is no rebuke at all for him not knowing the heart. The Lord only can see the heart. This was drilled into me as a young elder with a very sound session to guide me. This seeing the outward appearance only is not a rebuke in itself, it is simply a statement of what is the case.

This was a very wise thing to learn for any elder who has to make decisions about membership and related matters. We only judge by outward appearance--by what people say and do. But to presume you know if a man is regenerate or not is impossible and I think sinful for a man to presume.

I have no time to even really proofread this but this I think is the foundational issue you should go after.
 
Peter's starting point is not subjective profession but objective salvation. He does not say, "Baptism now expresses your faith" or "Baptism now marks your profession." He says, "Baptism now saves you." That is the thesis. Everything that follows is an explanation of how baptism saves. If one begins with "baptism is a profession of faith," Peter's logic becomes incoherent. The entire Noah analogy collapses.

Peter divides baptism into the sign in the outward washing and the thing signified as an inward reality. But that inward reality is not the believer's subjective state. It is the resurrection of Jesus Christ and the pledge of a good conscience toward God. Peter's distinction between the sign and the thing signified will only work if baptism represents an objective salvation. If baptism were fundamentally about profession, then the outward washing would correspond to the outward profession and the inward reality would correspond to the inward sincerity of the profession. At that point the sacrament only serves as a mirror of the self rather than a sign of salvation.

The Noah correspondence demands an external, objective salvation. Noah was not saved by his sincerity, his profession, or an internal disposition. He was saved by an ark. The salvation was outside of him and provided by God. Peter explicitly says baptism corresponds to that. It was entered into by faith, but it was not constituted by a profession of his faith. Noah did not profess his way into salvation; he was placed into an ark. Just as Noah was saved by an objective, God-given salvation, so also are we saved by an objective, God-given salvation. Baptism signifies that salvation.

Let us now apply this to infants. The question is not, Do they make a profession of faith? We have proven that baptism does not signify profession of faith. It signifies salvation. So the real question is, Are infants saved? If they are not saved, if they are damned, then they must not be baptised. If they are saved, then baptism belongs to them as it did to Noah's children, on the basis of the promise, "But with thee will I establish my covenant; and thou shalt come into the ark, thou, and thy sons, and thy wife, and thy sons' wives with thee" (Gen. 6:18).

To be sure, profession is real, necessary, and biblical, but it is not the meaning of baptism. Infants must be urged to come to faith and repentance and to make their own profession of faith as the proper response to salvation. But that profession is not salvation.
Thank you.

The Baptism saves argument looks good. I think most of us who do not hold to baptismal regeneration mishandle the "baptism now saves you.." text. The language is slightly heavy for me though, and I would like to listen to a video that expatiates your point. Any resource I can listen to?
 
The Baptism saves argument looks good. I think most of us who do not hold to baptismal regeneration mishandle the "baptism now saves you.." text. The language is slightly heavy for me though, and I would like to listen to a video that expatiates your point. Any resource I can listen to?

I tend to read rather than listen, so I won't be of much help to you in that department I'm sorry. Perhaps someone else can can help you out there.
 
@JvMill thanks for the shout-out.

(Also, I love the pic in your avatar :) God bless you and your family)

I am happy to reply yet hesitated for I do not wish to step on the OP's intent and toes here. Then I saw the OP "hearted" your reply so I take that as a fair indicator I can interact as fully as I need.

In preparing my reply, I just discovered multi-quote feature has a limit, huh.

Anyway, at the beginning, you said my first point was confusing, but that was for the OP and cautioning him against becoming tribal with his friend.

I didn't say that in so many words, but that was my point for him and it was made as a point being true for all of us including the historical cases where Baptists churches chose not to require "re-baptisms" for paedobaptist transfers due to their strong belief that the Independent and Presbyterian denominations are true churches of Christ. (They would not have done so if the transfers were coming from Rome - a baptism that must be neither "valid" nor "legal").

If this particular detail of this particular appeal to a lack of tribalism in discussion "across the aisle" is confusing, it is my fault, not yours.

Now for the good stuff:

2 Cor doesn't say the seal is the Spirit.

Yes but that was the first in a chain of verses that prove the point. I did not say 2 Cor. specifically says the seal is the Spirit. I said:
2 Cor. 1:22 links the seal and the gift of the Spirit.

He has sealed us and given us the gift of the Spirit in our hearts as a guarantee of payment. Sealed us with what?
Eph. 1:13 says we are sealed with the promise (given and received) of the Holy Spirit, and Eph. 4:30 says we are sealed by the Holy Spirit for the day of redemption.

The water of baptism is a sign of the sealing of the Holy Spirit. Water doesn't save us; baptism doesn't save us. It is only God who saves us, not because of works done by us in righteousness, but according to his own mercy, by and through the washing of regeneration and renewal of the Holy Spirit (the thing signified by the sign of water), whom he poured out on us richly through Jesus Christ our Savior, so that being justified by his grace we might become heirs according to the hope of eternal life.

There is a spiritual washing/renewal/circumcision of the heart and there is a physical act of baptism.

These are not always connected we know. The first cannot occur without the latter long term throughout one's life; (thief on the cross being a notable exception). But the latter can occur without the former - sadly, all too frequently.

You kept inferring that I was missing out on the sacramental relation in water baptism. Please see Post # 15 for why that is not true for Reformed Baptists while that is sadly true for 99% of other self-proclaiming Baptists in this country.

lest you say 'see they received the Spirit and were baptized, credo', read Acts 8 first. Sign and thing can come in any order.

Well, I completely agree that in Acts 10, "Peter clearly teaches that water baptism is linked directly to the reception of the Spirit - the first is a sign of the second" I could not possibly disagree with you more that sign and thing signified can come in any order. I would dive into Acts 8 and show how it cannot be used as a prooftext for such a claim, but I suspect it would be a waste of time without agreed-upon standards of hermeneutics.

Circumcision is a sign of the circumcision of the heart, with typological elements.

We affirm circumcision of the flesh is a sign and seal for those in the Old Testament. We affirm the rest of your paragraph as well. We also affirm that no OT believer had the Spirit poured out on them. That was yet to come. I know you affirm this as well. So, the question has to be what is the circumcision of the flesh a type of? Who or what cuts off from sin and makes us adopted sons of God? Who or what grafts us into the vine as a new indwelling branch? Is it the act of baptism? Or is it the Holy Spirit?

I presume you would agree then for you said:
Every evangelical accepts the second.
to my statement here:
And it is only by circumcision of the heart, born again, regeneration by which anyone can have saving faith to proclaim. Period. Back then and even now.

So it seems we agree to a certain extent. It becomes a matter of which Assembly was being more Biblical in chapter 29 (for 1689 - I cannot recall but I think it's a different chapter for your WCF).

When Keach said:
(1.) Circumcision was a Shadow of Christ to come: Baptism is a Sign he is already come, was dead and buried.
you said:
Fine, but the last two words are unnecessary.

Well, I don't think Rom. 6:4 uses unnecessary language though.

When Keach said:
Circumcision was a Sign of the Covenant made with Abraham and his natural Seed: Baptism is a Sign of the peculiar spiritual Priviledges made to Saints, as such, and no others.
you said:
Then why do some non-Jews take the sign of circumcision when entering into covenant with God? See the end of Esther, and many other places. And why do some seed of Abraham stop giving the sign (Edom?)

Because in the OT, circumcision of the flesh was the sign and seal established by YHWH for entering into his covenant. You want to join that covenant? Get circumcised. You want to leave that covenant? Stop circumcising your 8-day old infants. Who or what is doing the cutting/not cutting? The people joining/not joining. Why would they join/ leave? Because of what is in their hearts.

To make sure you understand Keach's point here, he is speaking to the context that we affirm that the New Covenant holds for the invisible church and is always efficacious and there is no one outside the covenant who is saved and no inside the covenant who is not.

When Keach said:
(5.) Circumcision was the cutting off the Fore-skin of the Flesh, which drew Blood: Baptism is to be done by dipping the whole Body into the Water without drawing of any Blood.
you said:
Or the pouring out of water on the person, like the Spirit was poured out at pentecost.

Amen. If one cannot be immersed due to environmental restrictions, one should be poured over every inch.

When Keach said:
Circumcision belonged to Male Children only: Baptism belongs to Males and Females also.
you said:
But no longer an entire class of people: children.

Amen. Of course not. What Biblical command would there be? And before I get the standard "good and necessary consequence" reply and how could I possibly demand explicit command when I also have to use GNC to develop the Trinitarian teachings of Scripture, etc. Before you go there, consider the RPW argument:

I believe as stated in the Westminster Confession and the 1689 London Baptist Confession, baptism and the Lord’s Supper, including their subjects, are “sacraments instituted by Christ.”

That they are included as elements of worship under the regulative principle of worship positively instituted by God and “limited by His own revealed will” (WCF 20:1, 5). The elements of Christian worship governed by the regulative principle are all “expressly set down in Scripture,” not deduced by good and necessary inference or consequence. The only form of baptism which fits the regulative principle is that which was “instituted” and “prescribed in the Holy Scripture;” that is, the baptism of disciples alone, not of infants by additional and supposed good and necessary inference or consequence. Baptism is for disciples alone (John 4:1; Acts 2:38–41).

When Keach said:
(7.) Circumcision was to be done precisely on the eighth day: Baptism is not limited to any precise day.
you said:
On the eighth day, the Lord's Day.

Ha. This one's new to me. I thought you would have known he is referring to the 8th day of the infant's life. (How does your GNC work exactly?)

But this line of reasoning is one I have never heard. Really? So a church that rents a Saturday afternoon at a YMCA pool that is not open on Sunday for baptism is in error? And if so, you of course, can cite a chapter and verse proving this? Or is this another GNC on top of the GNC already used to baptize infants in the first place?

When Keach said:
Circumcision belonged to Abraham‘s House, to his Male Infants only, or such who were bought with his Money, and not the Male Infants of any other godly Men in his days, unless they join themselves to his Family. Baptism belongs to Believers in all Nations.
you said:
He contradicts his own point 2, see above. And again, this expansion is greatly dulled by the new exclusion of children.

You are wrong on both counts. Point 2 is not contradicted but augmented here as to the difference between ethnic/familial/national lines and the universality of all believers in the New Covenant even elect children. No elect child is ever excluded. Nor can a reasonable argument be constructed to claim our position necessarily contains such an idea.

When Keach said:
If Circumcision signified the same things, and consequently, particularly the sealing the Covenant of Grace; then those that were circumcised, needed not to be baptized, because sealed before with the same seal of that which signified the same thing: but Christ and all his Apostles, and many others who were circumcised, were nevertheless baptized.
you said:
No, baptism is done in light of the completed work of Christ - of course they had to be baptized. This is a silly argument.

Baptism is done in light of the completed work of Christ sealed by the Holy Spirit. Of course they had to be baptized. According to you, they are already sealed in the Covenant of Grace. One CofG, the NC, from Adam to the end of all things, yes? And the CofG is not fully revealed and in effect before the work of Christ, yes? So the argument is not silly. IF circumcision of the flesh is the sign and seal of the already/not yet CofG and baptism itself is the sign and seal of the CofG in its fullness after the work of Christ and Pentecost, then why would Paul need baptized?

I am not saying you are stumped or have no answer, you all probably do. I am saying the question is not silly. Stop pretending like Keach is some backwoods snake handler from Appalachia here, thanks.

When Keach said:
Circumcision signified the taking away the Sins of the Flesh, or the Circumcision of the Heart: but Baptism signifies the Death, Burial, and Resurrection of Christ, which Circumcision did not.
you said:
Titus 3, plus the connection of the giving of the Spirit and baptism in ALL of Acts.

That might be the answer to some question, but it is not the answer to this one. You have to agree circumcision does not signify the death, burial, and resurrection of Christ, yes? If you agree it does not, then the question stands. If you argue it does, then I would have heard something new again and would have a lot more follow up questions.

Thanks for the opportunity to stretch the brain a little bit.

No problem, anytime.

God bless you!
 
That might be the answer to some question, but it is not the answer to this one. You have to agree circumcision does not signify the death, burial, and resurrection of Christ, yes? If you agree it does not, then the question stands. If you argue it does, then I would have heard something new again and would have a lot more follow up questions.
There is a view that is not at all unorthodox and it’s not unpopular: that Paul calls Christ’s death a circumcision at the end of Col. 2.11. JV Fesko, S.B. Ferguson, Jason Helopoulos, Meredith Kline, Harrison Perkins, etc. I take this view also.

There are 3 reasons I take this view:
  • Romans 6:1-6 especially v. 6. Our mortification is done is virtue of Christ death. “Believers mortify in virtue of Christ’s death.” That’s basically what Paul is saying in both the Roman’s 6 and Colossians 2 passage - just different wording.
  • Notice the order. If you look carefully in the Col 2. passage there is a pattern if you zoom out to include v12 with v.11. It’s subtle but it’s there. Circumcision, burial, resurrection. Circumcision of Christ then burial of Christ then resurrection of Christ.
  • Christ suffered the curse sanction symbolized in circumcision. This will take some explaining. Circumcision preached 2 messages. To the covenant keeper, it preached purification - the cutting away of impurity; he is purified. (But this purification is to be had by grace through faith in the promised messiah - who they knew was to be “cut off” for the true Israel.)To the covenant breaker it preached his “cutting off from his people;” the covenant breaker himself is the impure thing cut off and cast away. What each and every Israelite boy experienced on the 8th day by way of knife was a symbol and a ritual merely but Christ experienced the real thing - the ultimate circumcision.
So if you take Paul in Col.2:11 to call Christ’s death a circumcision…. Well that means Christ death is called, by the Holy Spirit, both a circumcision and a baptism. Jesus calls his death a baptism in Luke 12:50. This is where the rituals meet in terms of their significance - in Christ death. Both rituals preach the benefits of Christ (ritual cleansing) and both preach the work of Christ (dying and rising // ritual death) - one looking prospective and one looking retrospective.
 
In preparing my reply, I just discovered multi-quote feature has a limit, huh.
o_O

If this particular detail of this particular appeal to a lack of tribalism in discussion "across the aisle" is confusing, it is my fault, not yours.
Thanks for clarifying. I’m not sure a Baptist who doesn’t require rebaptism is entirely consistent, but at least they’re nice

So it seems we agree to a certain extent. It becomes a matter of which Assembly was being more Biblical in chapter 29 (for 1689 - I cannot recall but I think it's a different chapter for your WCF)
Seems this seems to be the case regarding sign and seal, Holy Spirt and washing. Seems a lot of the data points are the same but the final product is different, based on overall doctrinal construction.
Well, I don't think Rom. 6:4 uses unnecessary language though
The connection only holds if you hold to immersion, that it was I was (unclearly) trying to get at. Baptism is only a sign of his burial if baptism is by immersion, which I no longer do. To state it frankly, though with respect, Romas 6:3-4 cannot bear the weight required in the Baptist system. I just don’t think it means what y’all think it means (to quote Princess Bride)

Before you go there, consider the RPW argument:
Yes, I have read Malone. It was a stop on my pilgrimage. Let’s just say it didn’t convince.
That they are included as elements of worship under the regulative principle of worship positively instituted by God and “limited by His own revealed will” (WCF 20:1, 5). The elements of Christian worship governed by the regulative principle are all “expressly set down in Scripture,” not deduced by good and necessary inference or consequence. The only form of baptism which fits the regulative principle is that which was “instituted” and “prescribed in the Holy Scripture;” that is, the baptism of disciples alone, not of infants by additional and supposed good and necessary inference or consequence. Baptism is for disciples alone (John 4:1; Acts 2:38–41).
A few things here:

1. I was having a hard time finding where WCF says ‘expressly set down in scripture’ with relation to public worship. The WCF certainly does not say anything about the regulative principle and inference/consequence. Just because some Presbyterian said it (quoted by Malone in his book) does not mean he was right nor Malone understood him correctly. I want to confessional language. Obviously there is a fundamental disagreement among the 1689 and WCF.

2. Don’t over state your case. Where is the Baptist case ‘expressly laid out’ in a way that satisfies your requirements for the Presbyterian? Certainly not the two passages you quoted? They John 4 just says they were making and baptizing disciples. Acts 2 says be baptized for the forgiveness of sins. Are you becoming Lutheran? That’s my snarky way of saying I don’t think the Baptist view of Baptism is expressly taught in a way that satisfies your parameters. Basically, it’s a double standard.

3. If you’re going to use John 4, I get to use Lydia is Acts 16. She is saved, her household is baptized. If you want to say they were all old enough to believe, I get to say infants were present in John 4 (which btw, my case doesn’t require but yours does, on Acts 16). Both are inferences not present in the text. The household baptisms are as good as any historical precedent for household baptism, especially when we read them with the whole Bible in mind.
Ha. This one's new to me. I thought you would have known he is referring to the 8th day of the infant's life.
I know he was. It’s just some biblical theology. Christ was raised on the 8th day for a reason - new creation. Same reason an infant was circumcised on the 8th day, to point to new creation. You have to put these sort of things together.
But this line of reasoning is one I have never heard. Really? So a church that rents a Saturday afternoon at a YMCA pool that is not open on Sunday for baptism is in error? And if so, you of course, can cite a chapter and verse proving this? Or is this another GNC on top of the GNC already used to baptize infants in the first place?
I would say it’s wrong yes, though not invalid. Baptism should be done in public worship with the Church, full stop. Having on a Saturday will guarantee some won’t be there (perhaps a large majority). Also it’s not called covenant assembly. What happened to your regulative principle? The teaching on the Lord’s day is in the same chapter as the teaching on the sacraments, regarding worship.

This is another legitimate reason pouring should be considered - can be done anywhere, at any time (of the year, warm or cold) to anyone (Crippled, infant, able-bodied). It’s actually another reason I think immersion was not happening in Acts, but that’s another story.

Also I don’t operate with a chapter and verse mentality, so no problem for me there.
Amen. If one cannot be immersed due to environmental restrictions, one should be poured over every inch.
Sorry this one is out of order - if a square inch remains dry is it invalid?
Stop pretending like Keach is some backwoods snake handler from Appalachia here, thanks
This genuinely made me laugh. Yes, one covenant of Grace, many administrations. The administration of the sacraments pertain to the administrations of the CoG. This is why infants are to be baptized - they belong to the administration. New administration, new sign. Entering a new administration, take the new sign. That’s how I understand it, basically.
That might be the answer to some question, but it is not the answer to this one. You have to agree circumcision does not signify the death, burial, and resurrection of Christ, yes? If you agree it does not, then the question stands. If you argue it does, then I would have heard something new again and would have a lot more follow up questions.
See Dawson’s post - I find it compelling as well.

Bless you brother.
 
There is a view that is not at all unorthodox and it’s not unpopular: that Paul calls Christ’s death a circumcision at the end of Col. 2.11.

Did he? I got called out by John for 2 Cor. 1:22 not saying directly that the Holy Spirit is the seal of the New Covenant, and yet you can cite Col. 2:11 calls Christ's death specifically a circumcision? The circumcision of Christ?

Let's check that: "In him also you were circumcised with a circumcision made without hands, by putting off the body of the flesh, by the circumcision of Christ" Nope. I don't see it. He does not call the death of Christ the circumcision of Christ. Well maybe the verses preceding?

"Therefore, as you received Christ Jesus the Lord, so walk in him, 7; rooted and built up in him and established in the faith, just as you were taught, abounding in thanksgiving. "8 See to it that no one takes you captive by philosophy and empty deceit, according to human tradition, according to the elemental spirits, 9; For in him the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily, 10 and you have been filled in him, who is the head of all rule and authority. 11 In him also you were circumcised with a circumcision made without hands, by putting off the body of the flesh, by the circumcision of Christ."

Hm, don't see the death or burial there either. What about after?

"having been buried with him in baptism, in which you were also raised with him through faith in the powerful working of God, who raised him from the dead." Oh there is the death and burial of Christ. In what? In baptism.

I have no doubt smarter theologians than I take your side and disagree with my position. I also would hope you allow smarter theologians than you disagree with these also. (I could quote Gill and others at you, but I will refrain).

We have to have a standard of hermeneutics that begins at what the Bible says first.

Even if GNC takes into logical inference (I do not deny that is legitimate and necessary for theology), yet we must start at the Bible first not Fesko, Ferguson (whom I love even though I disagree here) or even Keach, Gill, etc.
Jesus calls his death a baptism in Luke 12:50.

I love that verse. "But I have a baptism to be baptized with; and how am I straitened till it be accomplished!"

Is it water baptism he is referring to?

Is it a baptism that is ordained for us?

or for him?

Can't be water, right? He already was. Can't be baptism in the Spirit, right? He already was - and that being more so than any other human ever: poured out over by the Spirit without measure.

"but the baptism of his sufferings is meant, which are compared to a baptism, because of the largeness and abundance of them; he was as it were immersed, or plunged into them; and which almost all interpreters observe on the text, and by which they confess the true import and primary signification of the word used;

as in baptism, performed by immersion, the person is plunged into water, is covered with it, and continues awhile under it, and then is raised out of it, and which being once done, is done no more;

so the sufferings of Christ were so many and large, that he was as it were covered with them, and he continued under them for a time, and under the power of death and the grave, when being raised from thence, he dies no more, before his incarnation; in sending one message after another, to give notice of his coming; in his willingness to be about his Father's business, as soon as possible; in rebuking Peter, when he would have dissuaded him from all thoughts of suffering: in going to Jerusalem on his own accord, in order to suffer there; in his earnest wish to eat the last passover with his disciples; in the joy that possessed him, when Judas was gone out, in order to betray him; in stopping in the midst of his sermon, lest he should overrun, or outslip the time of meeting him in the garden, John 14:30 in his going thither, and willingly surrendering himself up into the hands of his enemies; and in cheerfully laying down his life: all which arose from the entire love he had for the persons he died for; and because it was his Father's will, and his glory was concerned herein, and his own glory also was advanced thereby; moreover, his death was the life of others, and the work required haste."

- from John Gill's Exposition of the Old and New Testaments.

I don't think you have a "smoking gun" here that you imagine you do.
 
I don't think you have a "smoking gun" here that you imagine you do.
I’ll just say this, I didn’t think my rhetoric was inflammatory or triumphant. Do forgive me if it came across that way. I sought to objectively answer your point and explain my view. You made a post that indicated no one believes circumcision represents Christ dying. That is very false. Many scholars do; it’s a very legitimate view, etc. and it does make sense of the passage in a coherent way, though I understand not everyone sees it.
 
but the baptism of his sufferings is meant, which are compared to a baptism, because of the largeness and abundance of them; he was as it were immersed, or plunged into them; and which almost all interpreters observe on the text, and by which they confess the true import and primary signification of the word used;
Was the cup of wrath poured out onto him, or was he immersed in God’s wrath? Gill, and other Baptists, use what seems like to me special pleading to avoid the obvious sacramental/cleansing language surrounding baptism, and that it obviously doesn’t just mean ‘dip or immerse.’ The same happens with Pentecost. Something like this: ‘There was so much of the Spirit poured out, it so filled the room, that it was as if they were immersed in it, therefore baptism can mean immersion here too.’

You seem okay with a different application (water applied to the man), but many (most?) Baptists say the person must be put down into the water to symbolize Jesus’ burial. But that’s not what happened with the wrath nor at Pentecost.
 
I am happy to reply yet hesitated for I do not wish to step on the OP's intent and toes here. Then I saw the OP "hearted" your reply so I take that as a fair indicator I can interact as fully as I need.
Just for reference brother, I'm a convinced paedobaptist and have three toddlers all baptized. I'm here because I share concern for my best friend's newly born kid and I believe his kid be baptized and not treated like an outsider with zero status. I needed some help in how to approach his father as I speak to him tomorrow Sunday on this subject as I'm not very well studied on it. But thank you for taking out time to engage on the thread.
 
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