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Do you have a contemporary source discussing this or is this conjecture (not being snide - honestly asking and haven't had any success finding such sources)?As I understand it, the main reason the Baptists chose to use ordinance instead of sacrament was to distance themselves further from Rome and its sacramental soteriology, not because there is any real difference in the two words among the Reformed.
My pastor actually said this in a sermon after some baptisms and before the Lord’s supper when he was discussing them pertaining to the catechisms and explaining the ordinances (or catechisms) of the church.Do you have a contemporary source discussing this or is this conjecture (not being snide - honestly asking and haven't had any success finding such sources)?
Sorry, I meant a source contemporary to the writing of the 1/2LBC like we have for the WCF (like the Minutes of the sessions of the Westminster Assembly or even Warfield's volume on the Assembly and its work).My pastor actually said this in a sermon after some baptisms and before the Lord’s supper when he was discussing them pertaining to the catechisms and explaining the ordinances (or catechisms) of the church.
As I understand it, the main reason the Baptists chose to use ordinance instead of sacrament was to distance themselves further from Rome and its sacramental soteriology, not because there is any real difference in the two words among the Reformed.
Infants are saved by the election of God, and not saved by water baptism itself , as a saved baby is saved regardless if bring sprinkled or not in waterWe agree on the unity of the covenant of grace, the salvation of OT saints by Christ, and the typological character of the Mosaic economy. Where we diverge is in how you are defining "Old Covenant" and "New Covenant." Once you equate the Old Covenant with the covenant of works, it becomes unclear to me how you can affirm the salvation of the elect under that covenant unless you are saying they were saved by the covenant of works. I don't think that is what you are saying. But setting that aside, it does not alter the basic point I am making. If infants were included in the covenant community under whatever you call the Old Testament covenant, if they were saved by the same Christ, and if they received the sign of ingrafting into Christ, then the question remains: what principle now excludes them? So far, nothing you have said has addressed that discontinuity in your arrangement.
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Including all elect infants. This means elect infants were saved under the new covenant yet to come. So basically elect infants are saved under the new covenant. You haven't excluded them in the way you are formulating it. Once again, it is apparent that covenant theology is not at issue here. There is a disconnect between baptism and the covenant. Baptism is made a sign of profession of faith rather than a sign of salvation. This is the principle that is being smuggled into the conversation with no biblical basis.
Infants are saved by the election of God, and not saved by water baptism itself , as a saved baby is saved regardless if bring sprinkled or not in water
The “now” seems to always slip out when I hear RB’s speaking. I must say this loses me.
But even where they use the word "sacrament" it is obvious they do not mean the same thing as we do. But then people surprise you from time to time.
As a reformed Baptist, would say and see that water Baptism is the outward confession of what had already happened in the life of the redeemed, and would be an identification as being now part of the local assembly and the Body of ChristYou seem to be saying that water baptism is irrelevant and does nothing. Peter says "baptism saves." The Reformed say that means it is a sign and seal of salvation. I am not sure how you can reconcile your views with the Bible or Reformed theology.
Israel is a type of the Universal Church, the true elect saved, baptized from the old into the new.
I don't think the 2 sides will ever get past these points.water Baptism is the outward confession of what had already happened in the life of the redeemed
I don't think the 2 sides will ever get past these points.
are offered not thrown! hahahaKeeping in mind now, that the ark is a type of baptism (1 Peter 3), we see God set apart a family and save them from destruction. While the type includes a family, the anti-type always includes the individual only. The type's illustration is one not only of salvation from death but a bringing unto a new beginning. Baptism has always never been solely about death or saving from death but brining about from old into new, from death into life, and always inside AND outside.
As a reformed Baptist, would say and see that water Baptism is the outward confession of what had already happened in the life of the redeemed, and would be an identification as being now part of the local assembly and the Body of Christ
So I would see the entry point into the New Covenant of Grace as being the faith in the person and Work of the Lord Jesus as my savior and Lord
It seems to me that the way you are breaking down the typology determines the conclusion you reach. You begin with the assumption that baptism is signifying an individual's inward grace, and then you interpret the type accordingly. But that means the individual‑only baptism is already built into the premise. The typology is not doing the work; your definition is.
In the type of the ark, God saves a household. In the anti‑type of baptism, Peter explicitly says the pattern continues: "the like figure now saves you." But "you" in 1 Peter is not an isolated individual; it is the covenant community addressed as a body. It is the holy nation. The anti‑type as an "individual" is simply not something Peter says.
But even if we went the route of the "individual," there is still the fact that infants are individuals and there are elect infants who are saved by baptism. With all the ingenuity in the world one does not evade that fact. Break it down any way one pleases, it is not going to nullify the truth that is professed.
There is no "individual-only" baptism. My "individual" comment was simply to eliminate the offhand possibility anyone out there would interpret the ark-as-type-of-baptism with any kind of phantom "issue" that swirls out there that a particular member of the family was saved-from-Flood but not-saved-from-sin (Ham for instance).
Or the fact that not all individuals crossing the Red Sea were elect. So the fact that the type included all Noahs' family or all Israelites does not mean that all are elect and that does not undermine the typology the NT employed. That was all I meant there.
Quite the leap to make to presume I intended to undercut or deny the fact that Peter was addressing the covenant community as a body. I affirm that.
And I stand by the fact that baptism is also an individualistic action between God and the believer. Even in covenant community-wide baptisms like Acts 2, the sacramental union is both a union with Christ and his Church and also Christ and me and you and you etc.
I am very sure that I am innocent of coming at typology with a pre-determined conclusion (or at least no more so than we are all susceptible to at times). But I am very sure this time is not the case since I deliberated as hard as I could to be faithful to all texts consulted.
I should have said it always “comes out” or “shows up.”Slips out? How can this lose you?
The Paedobaptist view is quite different; I trust you know this. (Interested readers could confer with Stephen G Myers, David Gibson, Cornelis Venema, John Murray, etc.)God makes a covenant with Abraham and he is circumcised in the flesh - a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had yet being uncircumcised: that he might be the father of all them that believe, circumcised in the flesh or not. The sign and means of grace for Abraham here specifically is not extended to all male infants ever after.
No there is not if you take the whole post into account. You may not agree with my position but it has coherence and consistency.So, again, there is a disconnect.
I have spent multiple posts over and over again saying the opposite of what you take as an indicator.Your use of the term “now” - I take to be an indicator that the current heart replacement was not that which OT saints experience.
If circumcision was a seal of the righteousness of faith Abraham had in his state of uncircumcision, then it as a seal guarantees the promise that God counts faith as righteousness. This is good news to every male, and indeed every household of Israel.
Amen.If circumcision was a seal of the righteousness of the faith which would be in the uncircumcision (that is to say, in the gentiles), well it still preaches justification sola fide!
The then-present pedagogical force of circumcision is as follows: “Father Abraham received this righteousness by faith. In a distant day the gentiles will receive this (same) righteousness by faith. You too, young Isaac, young Ishmael, young Jacob and Esau, may have this same righteousness right now by faith in the promised Messiah.”
Laying out simply a deep and complex system was always my goal. I included definitions of terms and made as many connections as I could Biblically while limiting the word count to a reasonable degree for a PB post.
I’ve started a couple of other threads breaking down the conversation into its particulars so some headway can be made. I haven’t seen you participate there.Frankly, this all is getting kind of ridiculous.
Richard Feynman was a deeply flawed secular materialistic scientist who had one redeeming quality by God's common grace: he was an excellent teacher. When he said "If you cannot explain something in simple terms, then you really don't understand it", he put his metaphorical money where his mouth was and published his "Lectures on Physics" which - to this very day - has no equal in its simplicity and layers of depth in all introductory topics in the field. (NOTE: I do not recommend picking it up and devouring every claim wholesale as he does approach science from the materialistic worldview.)
This is for all those lurking and watching and thinking and praying:
Laying out simply a deep and complex system was always my goal. I included definitions of terms and made as many connections as I could Biblically while limiting the word count to a reasonable degree for a PB post.
This thread is not a debate.
One side is being cross-examined (credobaptists). The other side is picking at the quotes produced by the other and not producing a simple straightforward case for their system top to bottom for you to consider.
This thread is the equivalent of a credobaptist sitting at a Jubilee table while paedobaptists tag team posts (often the same post) and rotate out while there is no clock on the table. And there is no moderator to insist the padeobaptist lay out their full affirmative case for why infants should be baptized with no positive command to baptize infants. Can you? Can you guys lay out your case simply and fully in one post including definitions of covenants, sacraments etc?
Now I am on record, and I will go again on record as saying that I would love for there to be an actual debate on the issue with clear guidelines and responsible and thorough scholarship on both sides. A deep dive with fallacies cut out by an impartial moderator whenever one loses a bit of cool, and pointed questions and genuine answers that reveal the fullness of each system to its most theological robustness.
This is not that thread.
That would have to be some other hypothetically possible thread, but it is not this one. I wouldn't even vote on myself for the credo representative, as I have not one millisecond of seminary. I am just a guy. I know that sounds like a "humble brag" but it is really not.
How was that not a "humble brag"? Consider this:
there has to be a reason my summary "position posts" (as in Post # 248) gets not even one like, not even from other credos. I really don't know why, but I am more than prepared for the possibility I am making some error in my definitions and connections. I am pretty sure there are no errors "found out" by my interlocutors though as they pull sentences here and there and handwave by way of assertion that I am wrong without considering the actual argument I laid out in its entirety.
EXAMPLE: I am told I have to account for non-elect in a type. Period. That's it.
Why though? If it is not a baptism itself but a type of baptism, then why should I assume that the anti-type must include non-elect as well as the type? Do other types work this? Not that I know of. It is why a type of Christ can be very much not like Christ in substance. We know the type (shadow) of Christ in the figure of Moses, Samson, David includes unChristlike attributes in their substance, so that the type is a shadow and the substance of the type is NOT the same as the substance of the anti-type.
I hope this gets better and full and developed positions start being laid out by the other side instead of pulling sentences and sniping while getting up from the chair so that another interlocutor can snipe at other carefully-chosen sentences, ... which is why this gets tiring so fast
I haven’t seen you participate there.
No there is not if you take the whole post into account. You may not agree with my position but it has coherence and consistency.
I would say they are circumcised into the administration of the CoG. I intended to be pretty clear on that in my last post…So then they are not circumcised into the Covenant of Grace yes? Since entry is solely justification by grace alone through faith alone in Promised Messiah alone. Yes?
Think that would appear to be the dividing issue on this entire discussion, as to what actually constitutes the person entry way and point into the COG, the New Covenant?No there is not if you take the whole post into account. You may not agree with my position but it has coherence and consistency.
I have spent multiple posts over and over again saying the opposite of what you take as an indicator.
Sure, I do not deny; I affirm. My question is how can infants have faith to be counted as righteousness? Do you claim male infants have a faith counted as to righteousness in their circumcisions?
Amen.
So then they are not circumcised into the Covenant of Grace yes? Since entry is solely justification by grace alone through faith alone in Promised Messiah alone. Yes?
The Bible clearly teaches that baptism saves. It is not the act itself that saves, despite what Rome teaches. But baptism is the normal means by which God saves, and through a present or future faith. It is like the blind man whose sight was restored by washing in the pool of Siloam. It was Jesus (God) who restored the man's sight, while the elements were the visible means through which God worked. Likewise, the sacraments are a work - not of man, but of God.As a reformed Baptist, would say and see that water Baptism is the outward confession of what had already happened in the life of the redeemed, and would be an identification as being now part of the local assembly and the Body of Christ
So I would see the entry point into the New Covenant of Grace as being the faith in the person and Work of the Lord Jesus as my savior and Lord
No ritual can instate someone intentionally and really into the Covenant of Grace.
Thus no one is ever baptized into the CoG.
That is the claim; but I was testing the claim. Protestations of coherence and consistency are not going to meet the criticisms. One must answer the criticisms to SHOW coherence and consistency.
Every instance of the term “baptism” in my last post was a reference to the water ritual. I figured that was evident given the context. The sign, not the thing signified.I always thought we were at least agreed on the Spirit baptism into the CofG. I guess I was wrong?
Every instance of the term “baptism” in my last post was a reference to the water ritual. I figured that was evident given the context. The sign, not the thing signified.
Meaning with water. No one is ever water baptized into the CoG in an ex opere operato way.Thus no one is ever baptized into the CoG.