Bible Translations

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I have decided outside of compelling evidence to switch back and forth between the KJV and NKJV using the Archaic Words book which is really just a dictionary to verify words that I might not understand the precise meaning of.

Thank you for the link to the Geneva Bible website Northern Crofter. I have added it to my bookmarks.

Bruce, nice to see a fellow Ozarkian Calvinist from Missouri here on the Puritan Board. There are not many of us 'round 'bout these here parts in the Ozarks!

A quick review of the Bulwark Reformed Church website indicates that you are in the Free Reformed Churches in North America. Am I correct that you are the former NRC congregation that left the NRC a number of years ago? If so, I've met a number of your members when they visited what used to be Springfield URC/Gospel of Grace/Heritage ARP and now Heritage OPC. When I transferred out after the church's vote to leave the ARP and join the OPC, I was almost the longest-term member of that church, and I think I was one of only a half-dozen people left who dated back to its URC days.

I've known people from the Vlietstra and Balkema families, names known in your church, even farther back going back to the 1980s in Michigan, though the people I knew were from the side that had remained in the CRC/URC and had not left for the NRC.

Anyway, glad to see another Ozarkian Calvinist here. We live over an hour away from Springfield but I'm glad to see your church there.
 
Are you able to please share some of the most compelling examples in your view to support such a statement?

Here are a few that I have on hand.

1 Cor. 7:36, NIV: If anyone is worried that he might not be acting honorably toward the virgin he is engaged to, and if his passions are too strong and he feels he ought to marry, he should do as he wants. He is not sinning. They should get married.

ESV: If anyone thinks that he is not behaving properly toward his betrothed, if his passions are strong, and it has to be, let him do as he wishes: let them marry—it is no sin.

KJV: But if any man think that he behaveth himself uncomely toward his virgin, if she pass the flower of her age, and need so require, let him do what he will, he sinneth not: let them marry.

Calvin: "He now directs his discourse to parents, who had children under their authority."

Parental consent is removed to make room for a new doctrine of sexual temptation within engagement.

Gal. 4:3, NIV: So also, when we were underage, we were in slavery under the elemental spiritual forces of the world.

ESV: In the same way we also, when we were children, were enslaved to the elementary principles of the world.

KJV: Even so we, when we were children, were in bondage under the elements of the world:

Calvin: "We did not, he says, enjoy the truth in a simple form, but involved in earthly figures; and consequently, what was outward must have been 'of the world,' though there was concealed under it a heavenly mystery.

Biblical typology is turned into pagan mysticism.

Heb. 2:16, NIV: For surely it is not angels he helps, but Abraham’s descendants.

ESV: For surely it is not angels that he helps, but he helps the offspring of Abraham.

KJV: For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the seed of Abraham.

"But this one passage is abundantly sufficient to lay prostrate such men as Marcion and Manicheus, and fanatical men of similar character, who denied Christ to have been a real man, begotten of human seed. For if he bore only the appearance of man, as he had before appeared in the form of an angel, there could have been no difference; but as it could not have been said that Christ became really an angel, clothed with angelic nature, it is hence said that he took upon him man's nature and not that of angels."

This shift removes the verse's force as a Christological proof‑text for the Incarnation, and replaces it with a moral‑theological statement about God helping Abraham's descendants.

There are many more, e.g., NIV saying Christ "causes" men to stumble in Rom. 9; ESV claiming Solomon was born of Uriah's wife in Matt. 1. There are also numerous qualifications that are introduced by defining the preposition "of." But these few will demonstrate the novel ideas that can be introduced by new translations.
 
There are many more, e.g., NIV saying Christ "causes" men to stumble in Rom. 9; ESV claiming Solomon was born of Uriah's wife in Matt. 1. There are also numerous qualifications that are introduced by defining the preposition "of." But these few will demonstrate the novel ideas that can be introduced by new translations.
This seems an odd example to pick, unless I'm missing something. KJV has "David the king begat Solomon of her that had been the wife of Urias" following Geneva's "And David the King begate Saloman of her that was the wife off Vrias". I'm not sure how either of those is materially different from ESV's "David was the father of Solomon by the wife of Uriah"?

Let's remember that Bible translation is hard, and most of the examples you have provided here are simple disagreements on how best to translate the Greek rather than "making stuff up", which is a rather serious charge to level at fellow Christians in their handling of God's Word. No two translations will agree perfectly; sometimes one or other translator will simply get it wrong (as every translation does in places, including the KJV), but in most places you can see why translators have chosen to translate as they did, even if you disagree with their choices.
 
Bruce, nice to see a fellow Ozarkian Calvinist from Missouri here on the Puritan Board. There are not many of us 'round 'bout these here parts in the Ozarks!

A quick review of the Bulwark Reformed Church website indicates that you are in the Free Reformed Churches in North America. Am I correct that you are the former NRC congregation that left the NRC a number of years ago? If so, I've met a number of your members when they visited what used to be Springfield URC/Gospel of Grace/Heritage ARP and now Heritage OPC. When I transferred out after the church's vote to leave the ARP and join the OPC, I was almost the longest-term member of that church, and I think I was one of only a half-dozen people left who dated back to its URC days.

I've known people from the Vlietstra and Balkema families, names known in your church, even farther back going back to the 1980s in Michigan, though the people I knew were from the side that had remained in the CRC/URC and had not left for the NRC.

Anyway, glad to see another Ozarkian Calvinist here. We live over an hour away from Springfield but I'm glad to see your church there.
 
Concurred with others on the benefits of the NKJV for those people who simply cannot understand KJV language.

From experience in the rural South, which is far from the most educated part of the United States, the concerns of "people today can't read the KJV" are greatly exaggerated. I am not a KJV-onlyist, or even a Textus Receptus-onlyist, but I have to deal with the fact that in the rural Ozarks where the KJV is the default Bible translation and anything else has to be defended and creates a perception that the church using a non-KJV text is liberal or "loose," I just can't afford the unnecessary fight. I need to be able to tell fundamental Baptists, "We're KJV."

However, as @Jerusalem Blade points out, there are legitimate issues with people for whom English is their second language. Less than we might think, however. Our niece, when she moved to the US and we enrolled her in the local Christian school which expected all Bible work to be done from the KJV, had no problem within a year, especially once we got her a KJV-Korean interlinear Bible.

The NKJV, in addition to being based on the same underlying Greek/Hebrew texts as the KJV, is close enough in style that it's probably the best choice for a KJV church that needs an alternative translation for English-as-a-Second-Language people.

Bruce, nice to see a fellow Ozarkian Calvinist from Missouri here on the Puritan Board. There are not many of us 'round 'bout these here parts in the Ozarks!

A quick review of the Bulwark Reformed Church website indicates that you are in the Free Reformed Churches in North America. Am I correct that you are the former NRC congregation that left the NRC a number of years ago? If so, I've met a number of your members when they visited what used to be Springfield URC/Gospel of Grace/Heritage ARP and now Heritage OPC. When I transferred out after the church's vote to leave the ARP and join the OPC, I was almost the longest-term member of that church, and I think I was one of only a half-dozen people left who dated back to its URC days.

I've known people from the Vlietstra and Balkema families, names known in your church, even farther back going back to the 1980s in Michigan, though the people I knew were from the side that had remained in the CRC/URC and had not left for the NRC.

Anyway, glad to see another Ozarkian Calvinist here. We live over an hour away from Springfield but I'm glad to see your church there.
Thank you Darrell. You are the second Ozarkain I have met in this discussion. There is another one from Joplin. I don't know about the history of Bulwark Reformed Church except that they came out of Michigan. I was pointed to this church by Grace Reformed Christian Church in Harrison, AR. I am just thankful that God in His loving kindness led me to this church. When I started attending on April 12 of this year there were only four families all of Dutch ancestry. We are now up to seven families.
 
This seems an odd example to pick, unless I'm missing something. KJV has "David the king begat Solomon of her that had been the wife of Urias" following Geneva's "And David the King begate Saloman of her that was the wife off Vrias". I'm not sure how either of those is materially different from ESV's "David was the father of Solomon by the wife of Uriah"?

ESV follows RSV and fails to put any contextual time markers for the reader, so it appears she is the wife of Uriah when David begets Solomon. Even the NIV puts the contextual marker in there: "whose mother had been Uriah’s wife."

Let's remember that Bible translation is hard, and most of the examples you have provided here are simple disagreements on how best to translate the Greek rather than "making stuff up", which is a rather serious charge to level at fellow Christians in their handling of God's Word. No two translations will agree perfectly; sometimes one or other translator will simply get it wrong (as every translation does in places, including the KJV), but in most places you can see why translators have chosen to translate as they did, even if you disagree with their choices.

The examples given are interpretative decisions that move away from the historical understanding of the text in favour of something new. The point was to show how translators have it in their power to "make stuff up," to borrow Ed's words. New words create new things. This is not surprising since the Reformed always insisted that words are the doorway into things.
 
ESV follows RSV and fails to put any contextual time markers for the reader, so it appears she is the wife of Uriah when David begets Solomon. Even the NIV puts the contextual marker in there: "whose mother had been Uriah’s wife."



The examples given are interpretative decisions that move away from the historical understanding of the text in favour of something new. The point was to show how translators have it in their power to "make stuff up," to borrow Ed's words. New words create new things. This is not surprising since the Reformed always insisted that words are the doorway into things.
No doubt words are the doorway into things, and translator's interpretive decisions sometimes move away from the historical understanding of the text in favour of something new. But in this case, if this is a fault, it is the KJV that is guilty, not the ESV. The Greek literally says simply Σολομῶνα ἐκ τῆς τοῦ Οὐρίου ("Solomon from she who was of Uriah"). The "tradition" before the KJV is almost identical to the ESV: Tyndale has "Saloman of her that was the wyfe of Ury" and the Geneva has ""Saloman of her that was the wyfe of Vrias". There is no "contextual marker" in the Greek denoting Bathsheba's status at the time of Solomon's birth: the construction is parallel to the first half of the verse "Jesse begat David the king", even though we all know that David was not king when Jesse begat him. Matthew assumes that we know the relevant OT background.

In this case, it is the KJV that is "making stuff up" (as it notes by putting those words that had been the wife of in italics), to make something clearer in English than it was in the Greek - a process we often call "dynamic equivalence". In the process, it moved away from the translation made by those that went before it. If it is acceptable for the KJV translators to do that (and to be clear, I think it is), then it cannot be categorically wrong for modern translators to do the same thing, even if individual cases may be better or worse translations of the sacred text. (Did I mention that Bible translation is really hard?)
 
Thank you Darrell. You are the second Ozarkain I have met in this discussion. There is another one from Joplin. I don't know about the history of Bulwark Reformed Church except that they came out of Michigan. I was pointed to this church by Grace Reformed Christian Church in Harrison, AR. I am just thankful that God in His loving kindness led me to this church. When I started attending on April 12 of this year there were only four families all of Dutch ancestry. We are now up to seven families.

Blessings, Bruce. You'll find more Reformed people in the Ozarks, and on the Puritan Board, but they generally fall into one of two categories: 1) transplants from somewhere else who moved to the Ozarks and became very frustrated due to lack of Reformed church options, or 2) local people from the Ozarks, usually though not always from a Baptist background, who became Reformed and then became very frustrated trying to find a Reformed church.

There are exceptions but not many. This is a part of the country that was originally settled by Scots-Irish who usually had a Presbyterian background of some sort, but due to lack of pastors in Appalachia and Tennessee and Kentucky (the places from where most of the early Ozark settlers came) most people from a Scots-Irish background ended up becoming Baptists or Methodists, often before they ever arrived in Missouri, and it was even harder to get Reformed pastors to come to Missouri in the early 1800s than it had been to get them to come to Appalachia, Kentucky or Tennessee in the late 1700s.

The result is churches like yours in Seymour, founded by Reformed people (in your case, originally from the Netherlands Reformed Congregations) and in Harrison, Ark. (founded by the Heritage Reformed Congregations, Dr. Joel Beeke's denomination), and the church in Springfield of which I was a member for almost two decades, originally a URC church plant, who moved to the Ozarks and found there were no churches they could join.

For those who are trying to play "Dutch Bingo" here, the Free Reformed Churches in North America, with which the Seymour church is affiliated, is the American wing of the Christelijke Gereformeerde Kerk (CGKN), the original 1834 secession that began the Christian Reformed Church, hence the name, but the CGKN and the Free Reformed Churches in North America were the people who opposed Abraham Kuyper's views on presumptive regeneration and wanted to keep emphasizing Puritan piety. Yes, I know about the recent church split in the CGKN over in the Netherlands -- I'm speaking of the history and beliefs of the denominational tradition, not current controversies, which don't apply to the FRCNA. To indicate how solid the FRCNA is, they jointly run Puritan Reformed Theological Seminary in Grand Rapids with Dr. Joel Beeke's denomination, the Heritage Reformed Congregations.

The Harrison, Ark. and Seymour, Mo. churches are quite close in history and practice -- Dutch Puritans who moved to the Ozarks and had to figure out what to do about not having any church they could join, so they started their own and decided that maybe a few local Ozarkians might like to join them.

Not being entirely fair to either church or their history, but both are soundly Reformed and not at all what anyone would expect to find in the Ozarks.

The irony is that Puritan theology, and an emphasis on personal piety, actually works REALLY well in the Ozarks in relating to fundamentalists who love the Lord but are suspicious of "dead orthodoxy" among too many conservative Reformed people in the more "normal" Reformed and Presbyterian denominations. You can't make a hillbilly into a Hollander without some struggles, but the underlying emphasis on personal conversion actually works pretty well.

I've been saying for decades that giving the Heidelberg Catechism to a fundamentalist is a great way to introduce him to what it means to be Reformed.
 
Blessings, Bruce. You'll find more Reformed people in the Ozarks, and on the Puritan Board, but they generally fall into one of two categories: 1) transplants from somewhere else who moved to the Ozarks and became very frustrated due to lack of Reformed church options, or 2) local people from the Ozarks, usually though not always from a Baptist background, who became Reformed and then became very frustrated trying to find a Reformed church.

There are exceptions but not many. This is a part of the country that was originally settled by Scots-Irish who usually had a Presbyterian background of some sort, but due to lack of pastors in Appalachia and Tennessee and Kentucky (the places from where most of the early Ozark settlers came) most people from a Scots-Irish background ended up becoming Baptists or Methodists, often before they ever arrived in Missouri, and it was even harder to get Reformed pastors to come to Missouri in the early 1800s than it had been to get them to come to Appalachia, Kentucky or Tennessee in the late 1700s.

The result is churches like yours in Seymour, founded by Reformed people (in your case, originally from the Netherlands Reformed Congregations) and in Harrison, Ark. (founded by the Heritage Reformed Congregations, Dr. Joel Beeke's denomination), and the church in Springfield of which I was a member for almost two decades, originally a URC church plant, who moved to the Ozarks and found there were no churches they could join.

For those who are trying to play "Dutch Bingo" here, the Free Reformed Churches in North America, with which the Seymour church is affiliated, is the American wing of the Christelijke Gereformeerde Kerk (CGKN), the original 1834 secession that began the Christian Reformed Church, hence the name, but the CGKN and the Free Reformed Churches in North America were the people who opposed Abraham Kuyper's views on presumptive regeneration and wanted to keep emphasizing Puritan piety. Yes, I know about the recent church split in the CGKN over in the Netherlands -- I'm speaking of the history and beliefs of the denominational tradition, not current controversies, which don't apply to the FRCNA. To indicate how solid the FRCNA is, they jointly run Puritan Reformed Theological Seminary in Grand Rapids with Dr. Joel Beeke's denomination, the Heritage Reformed Congregations.

The Harrison, Ark. and Seymour, Mo. churches are quite close in history and practice -- Dutch Puritans who moved to the Ozarks and had to figure out what to do about not having any church they could join, so they started their own and decided that maybe a few local Ozarkians might like to join them.

Not being entirely fair to either church or their history, but both are soundly Reformed and not at all what anyone would expect to find in the Ozarks.

The irony is that Puritan theology, and an emphasis on personal piety, actually works REALLY well in the Ozarks in relating to fundamentalists who love the Lord but are suspicious of "dead orthodoxy" among too many conservative Reformed people in the more "normal" Reformed and Presbyterian denominations. You can't make a hillbilly into a Hollander without some struggles, but the underlying emphasis on personal conversion actually works pretty well.

I've been saying for decades that giving the Heidelberg Catechism to a fundamentalist is a great way to introduce him to what it means to be Reformed.
Very interesting information Darrell. I was aware of the migration to this area from the Appalachian region. I am of English, Scot and Irish ancestry and moved here from Texas. I noticed the Dutch word Kerk which I am guessing is the same as the Scot work for church Kirk. In short I raised myself Catholic, got saved watching Jimmy Swaggart. I moved to Corpus Christi, Texas and the only Assembly of God church had a female pastor which in my reading of Scripture is not allowed. So I began looking for Bible believing, pro-life, theologically conservatieve church and ended up in a PCA church. I moved to Branson, MO in 1999. There was not a PCA church there or in Springfield when I moved there in 2004. In December I was earnestly praying for God to lead me to some faithful church. I first went to an ECO Presbyterian, the a PCA church and I ended up at Bulwark Reformed Church which is where I believe He would have me.
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I have done some additional research since my initial post and I going back to my KJV and Geneva Bibles. This also makes it nice because this is the version used by the Free Reformed Church of North America and I assume favored by Joel Beeke as it is the version he chose for his wonderful study Bible. I appreciate everyone's answers to my question.
 
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Thank you, Bruce. Am I correct that the ECO pastor in Branson you met was Rev. Dustin Ray? Good guy, and former stated clerk of the ECO presbytery in the Ozarks before he transferred to the PCA.

I agree with you on Dr. Joel Beeke's KJV study Bible, and use it.

Very interesting information Darrell. I was aware of the migration to this area from the Appalachian region. I am of English, Scot and Irish ancestry and moved here from Texas. I noticed the Dutch word Kerk which I am guessing is the same as the Scot work for church Kirk. In short I raised myself Catholic, got saved watching Jimmy Swaggart. I moved to Corpus Christi, Texas and the only Assembly of God church had a female pastor which in my reading of Scripture is not allowed. So I began looking for Bible believing, pro-life, theologically conservatieve church and ended up in a PCA church. I moved to Branson, MO in 1999. There was not a PCA church there or in Springfield when I moved there in 2004. In December I was earnestly praying for God to lead me to some faithful church. I first went to an ECO Presbyterian, the a PCA church and I ended up at Bulwark Reformed Church which is where I believe He would have me.
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I have done some additional research since my initial post and I going back to my KJV and Geneva Bibles. This also makes it nice because this is the version used by the Free Reformed Church of North America and I assume favored by Joel Beeke as it is the version he chose for his wonderful study Bible. I appreciate everyone's answers to my question.
 
Thank you, Bruce. Am I correct that the ECO pastor in Branson you met was Rev. Dustin Ray? Good guy, and former stated clerk of the ECO presbytery in the Ozarks before he transferred to the PCA.

I agree with you on Dr. Joel Beeke's KJV study Bible, and use it.
You are very welcome Darrell. No I did not attend an ECO church in Branson. I was still relatively new to the Reformed faith as the PCA church I attended for was more social than 'educational' for lack of a better word. I was unaware of the ECO denomination so I was only looking for a PCA church for its' being truer to God's word as compared to PCUSA. The pastor of the ECO church I attended here in Springfield is and was Daniel Arachikavitz.
 
Heb. 2:16, NIV: For surely it is not angels he helps, but Abraham’s descendants.

ESV: For surely it is not angels that he helps, but he helps the offspring of Abraham.

KJV: For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the seed of Abraham.

That is a massive difference between the KJV and the others.

What, if any, are the underlying reasons for such a change? Does the Critical Text have a variant there that the TR doesn't?

I have been gradually moving more toward the Geneva/KJV in my daily reading. I can't escape the ESV as most of my scripture memorization was done in it for 10 years.
 
That is a massive difference between the KJV and the others.

What, if any, are the underlying reasons for such a change? Does the Critical Text have a variant there that the TR doesn't?

I have been gradually moving more toward the Geneva/KJV in my daily reading. I can't escape the ESV as most of my scripture memorization was done in it for 10 years.
As far as I can see there are no textual issues here. Rev Winzer unfortunately failed to italicize the extra material that the KJV has added here:
KJV: For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the seed of Abraham.

The (rather enigmatic) Greek says:
οὐ γὰρ δήπου ἀγγέλων ἐπιλαμβάνεται ἀλλὰ σπέρματος* Ἀβραὰμ ἐπιλαμβάνεται.

The interpretative question is the meaning of the twice repeated verb epilambanomai, which according to BDAG means
1) to take hold of, grasp catch
2) to arrest
3) to catch someone (saying something compromising)
4) to take hold of in order to make one's own
5) to be concerned with/about

Luther translates this fairly literally in sense 1) as
Denn er nimmt nirgent die Angel an sich sondern den samen Abrahe nimpt er an sich:
(For he nowhere takes the angels to himself , but rather he takes the seed of Abraham to himself.)

In this he is broadly following the Vulgate:
nusquam enim angelos adprehendit sed semen abrahae adprehendit
(For he nowhere apprehends angels, but he apprehends the seed of Abraham).

Tyndale is similar, though perhaps he opens the door for what follows by rendering the verb "takes on", which doesn't seem to be warranted according to BDAG (to which, of course, Tyndale had no access):
For he in no place taketh on him the angels: but the seede of Abraham taketh he on him"

It is the Geneva Bible that introduces the idea of taking on a nature:
For he in no sort tooke on him the Angels nature, but hee tooke on him the seede of Abraham

KJV found this interpretation compelling and so followed it, while using italics to make it clear that this wasn't explicit in the original text. Modern versions, including those that are not noted for free translation, like the ASV, NKJV, and the NASB, found it better to translate the verb according to meaning 5, which avoids having to add anything to the Greek text. It seems rather nonsensical to accuse the modern translations of "making stuff up" in this instance, however, where they have stuck closer to the Greek text than the KJV.

Now of course, it may be that the Geneva/KJV is right in its interpretation of the meaning of the passage in this instance, and modern versions are mistaken. Where Greek and Hebrew words have more than one meaning, translators have to choose, and those choices are not always the right ones. Did I mention Bible translation is hard? That's why we immerse our students in developing a good understanding of Greek and Hebrew so that they are not dependent upon any one English translation but can evaluate the differences. We also teach them it is probably best not to base doctrines on material that is added to the Greek and Hebrew text for clarity by the translator: such passages are generally rather weak proof texts at best.
 
You are very welcome Darrell. No I did not attend an ECO church in Branson. I was still relatively new to the Reformed faith as the PCA church I attended for was more social than 'educational' for lack of a better word. I was unaware of the ECO denomination so I was only looking for a PCA church for its' being truer to God's word as compared to PCUSA. The pastor of the ECO church I attended here in Springfield is and was Daniel Arachikavitz.

Thank you for the clarification.

For those who are reading here: Yes, I know the ECO is a mix of many different views. The local PC(USA) presbytery here in the Ozarks had been one of the most conservative in the entire denomination. Most of the conservatives in the presbytery stayed until the gay marriage fight was lost at the general assembly level, and then nearly the whole presbytery walked out to join the ECO as a group, which allowed them to take their property with them when they left since the presbytery makes those decisions and the presbytery majority left.

The result is that a number of people who probably would have gone into the PCA if they were in a different part of the country went into the ECO instead.

Some of those people, after leaving the PC(USA) for the ECO, made the next step to the PCA, which has now started a church in Springfield and has transferred most of the counties of the Missouri Ozarks out of the Missouri Presbytery into a different presbytery that has, well, let's just say a "lower profile" reputation. Only two PCA churches so far in the Missouri Ozarks but another is planned.

I'm way to the right of most of these people, but we're dealing with Bible-believing people who were very frustrated and fought for years and even decades against liberalism in the mainline Presbyterian denomination. As a man who was baptized in the UCC and remained in my "moderate" Congregational church until a new and aggressively liberal pastor ran me out way back in the 1980s, I have a lot of sympathy for those who stay and fight in the mainline denominations, even against losing odds, particularly when they finally say "thus far and no farther" and walk out in a unified way that allows them to leave with their buildings rather than seeing God's money and God's church buildings handed over to liberals.

I would be in their shoes and fighting a similar fight if I hadn't been run out during my first year of seminary. I guess his idea was to strike before I became dangerous to him, unlike his predecessor who believed in tolerating difference of opinion and knew that my views, unlike his, were the historic position of the church and I was returning to what the church had once believed.

Back on the main topic: As many problems as we have (correctly) with the NIV, there are worse translations out there. Look in the pews of a PC(USA) or UCC or United Methodist church, and you'll likely find a Bible that makes the RSV, with which I grew up, look good by comparison.

Let's be grateful that we're debating the KJV/NKJV/ESV/NIV, etc., and not having to deal with the translations that the mainline churches typically use today.

I'm old enough to remember when a small rural Congregational church that had remained conservative despite all the denomination's problems told me, in no uncertain terms, that I needed to use the KJV and not "one of those liberal Bibles."

That was my first serious exposure to the KJV and I was truly surprised that it was nowhere near as "hard to understand" as people told me it was.
 
5) to be concerned with/about

Modern versions, including those that are not noted for free translation, like the ASV, NKJV, and the NASB, found it better to translate the verb according to meaning 5
Thank you for this clarification, Iain. I often hear people say that the NKJV simply updated the language of the KJV. However it seems to me that the translators of the NKJV did not hesitate to correct a poor translation if needed.
 
What, if any, are the underlying reasons for such a change?

These kinds of textual questions interest me too. As Dr. Duguid said, maybe the KJV is right and all subsequent translations are wrong as to the author's intent. However, there are some compelling reasons behind the majority determination. Here is a summary of an AI inquiry:

Context: Hebrews 2:17-18 provides the context that modern scholars use to justify translating verse 16 as "giving aid" rather than "taking on a nature." These surrounding verses shift the focus from the act of becoming human (the Incarnation) to the practical purpose of that humanity (Jesus’ priestly service and rescue). The structural and thematic development in Hebrews 2:17-18 influences the translation through three main points:​
​
1. The Logical Progression of "Therefore" (κ α ι / ω φ ε ι λ ε ν): Verse 17 begins with "Therefore" or "Wherefore" ( ω φ ε ι λ ε ν ), indicating that what follows is a logical consequence of verse 16. If verse 16 means Christ helps Abraham's descendants, verse 17 explains how He helps them: "Therefore, he had to be made like his brothers in every way" to serve as a merciful high priest. The help precedes and necessitates the human likeness.​
​
2. Verse 17 introduces Christ's role as a "merciful and faithful high priest." A priest's primary function is to mediate, make propitiation, and actively intercede for sinful people. This directly aligns with the modern translation of verse 16 ("gives aid"), as a high priest is appointed specifically to offer help to those who are weak and wandering.​
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3. Verse 18 provides clarity by using a direct cognate of help ( β o η θ η σ α ι ), which means to run to the aid of someone crying out. The text states: "Because he himself suffered when he was tempted, he is able to help those who are being tempted." This creates a seamless literary bookend with the modern reading of verse 16. The section opens by stating who Christ helps (the descendants of Abraham, not angels) and closes by stating how He helps them (by sympathizing with their temptations through His own suffering).​
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Textual Precedents: Other factors: In ancient secular Greek literature, the verb ἐπιλαμβάνομαι (epilambanomai) is a middle-voice verb that literally means "to lay hold of," "to seize," or "to grasp" with the hands. When ancient writers used this word metaphorically regarding a person in danger, it specifically painted a picture of reaching out a hand to grab someone to pull them out of peril—much like a soldier dragging a comrade from a battlefield or a bystander pulling a drowning man from the water. The Greek grammar and usage in ancient texts support the modern translation of "giving aid" or "rescuing" through several specific mechanisms:​
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In Classical Greek: The Secular Idiom of "Taking Hold to Help" In classical and Hellenistic Greek, epilambanomai routinely dropped its aggressive connotation ("to seize a prisoner") and took on a benevolent meaning ("to take hold of someone to succor them") when paired with people facing disaster.​
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The Greek Historian Appian: In his work Civil Wars (4.96), Appian uses the active form of the verb alongside a dative pronoun to describe divine intervention: “ἡμῖν τὸ δαιμόνιον ἐπιλαμβάνει”. This translates directly to "the deity took hold of us" or "the deity helped/succored us."​
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The Scholiast on Aeschylus: In ancient commentary (Scholia) on the tragedy The Persians by Aeschylus (line 739), the word is explicitly used to denote divine rescue or backing, where a god "lays hold of" a situation to turn the tide and assist a mortal.​
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In the LXX: Sirach 4:11: This intertestamental Jewish text provides an exact parallel to the grammar in Hebrews. It says of Wisdom: “Ἡ σοφία υἱοὺς ἑαυτῆς ἀνύψωσε καὶ ἐπιλαμβάνεται τῶν ζητούντων αὐτήν.” This translates to: "Wisdom exalts her sons, and gives aid to / takes hold of those who seek her." Wisdom is not "assuming the nature" of those who seek her; she is rescuing them.​
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In the New Testament: When Peter tries to walk on water and begins to sink, the text says Jesus immediately stretched out His hand and "caught him" (epelabeto / ἐπελάβετο) (Matthew 14:31). Jesus physically "laid hold of" Peter to rescue him from drowning. Modern scholars argue that Hebrews 2:16 uses this exact concept metaphorically: humanity was drowning in sin, and Jesus did not reach out His hand to catch falling angels, but He reached out His hand to catch the descendants of Abraham.​
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The author of Hebrews also uses the word in this sense (Hebrews 8:9), where God says He epilambanomai (took hold of) the hand of the Israelites to lead them out of Egypt.​
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Doctrinal Impact: Some may debate whether or not rendering a verse in a particular way damages Christian doctrine (a principle known as the Analogy of Faith).​
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In the case of Hebrews 2:16, it can be noted that removing the "incarnation" language from this verse does not weaken the doctrine of Christ’s humanity, because verses 14 and 17 explicitly and undeniably state that Christ took on "flesh and blood" and was "made like his brothers in every way". Therefore, realizing the theology of the Incarnation is fully preserved by the surrounding text, one is able to translate verse 16 with stricter linguistic accuracy ("giving aid") rather than forcing it to repeat what verse 14 already accomplished. If verse 16 means He did not take the nature of angels but took human nature, verse 17 becomes somewhat redundant, essentially repeating that He had to be made like His brothers.​

In light of these many reasons, it is clear modern translations are not in any way being irresponsible with their rendering of this verse, let alone purposefully or inadvertently weakening orthodox Christian doctrine.
 
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No doubt words are the doorway into things, and translator's interpretive decisions sometimes move away from the historical understanding of the text in favour of something new. But in this case, if this is a fault, it is the KJV that is guilty, not the ESV. The Greek literally says simply Σολομῶνα ἐκ τῆς τοῦ Οὐρίου ("Solomon from she who was of Uriah"). The "tradition" before the KJV is almost identical to the ESV: Tyndale has "Saloman of her that was the wyfe of Ury" and the Geneva has ""Saloman of her that was the wyfe of Vrias". There is no "contextual marker" in the Greek denoting Bathsheba's status at the time of Solomon's birth: the construction is parallel to the first half of the verse "Jesse begat David the king", even though we all know that David was not king when Jesse begat him. Matthew assumes that we know the relevant OT background.

Theodore Beza's Annotation: “From her who [had been the wife] of Uriah, ἐκ τῆς τοῦ Οὐρίου. The Vulgate: Ex ea quæ fuit Vriæ. Which Erasmus correctly emended, so that in the Greek, where such ellipsis is familiar, not only γυναικός is to be understood, but also the second‑aorist participle γενομένης is to be added, lest Solomon appear to have been born of adultery.”

Earlier English versions were following the Latin Vulgate. The KJV translators explicitly follow Beza here and introduce a necessary correction.

As for the kingship of David, this is a category mistake. "David the king" is a title, not a relational genitive. "The wife of Uriah" is a relational genitive, which in Greek normally indicates present possession, or possession at the time of the event described. So the parallel is not valid.

In this case, it is the KJV that is "making stuff up" (as it notes by putting those words that had been the wife of in italics), to make something clearer in English than it was in the Greek - a process we often call "dynamic equivalence". In the process, it moved away from the translation made by those that went before it. If it is acceptable for the KJV translators to do that (and to be clear, I think it is), then it cannot be categorically wrong for modern translators to do the same thing, even if individual cases may be better or worse translations of the sacred text. (Did I mention that Bible translation is really hard?)

Nothing is made up. Neither is there any dynamic equivalence. It gives the English reader what the original reader would have understood. The Greek ellipsis must be understood as aoristic, not present. Hence most modern versions adhere to the decision of the KJV translators. The ESV, following the RSV, leaves the ellipses unresolved and therefore creates unnecessary ambiguity in the mind of the reader.

Failing to properly translate the Greek is no way to deal with the difficulties of translation, and ignoring those who have gone before you is a sure way to make it harder than it needs to be.
 
That is a massive difference between the KJV and the others.

What, if any, are the underlying reasons for such a change? Does the Critical Text have a variant there that the TR doesn't?

I have been gradually moving more toward the Geneva/KJV in my daily reading. I can't escape the ESV as most of my scripture memorization was done in it for 10 years.

You are right to notice the importance of this difference, especially as it is a theological commonplace. There is no underlying textual differences in the Greek. It is a translation choice that has emerged from another theological tradition. If you would like to see a sound exposition I recommend John Owen, who also provided a solid refutation of the false interpretation.
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Doctrinal Impact: Some may debate whether or not rendering a verse in a particular way damages Christian doctrine (a principle known as the Analogy of Faith).​
​
In the case of Hebrews 2:16, it can be noted that removing the "incarnation" language from this verse does not weaken the doctrine of Christ’s humanity, because verses 14 and 17 explicitly and undeniably state that Christ took on "flesh and blood" and was "made like his brothers in every way". Therefore, realizing the theology of the Incarnation is fully preserved by the surrounding text, one is able to translate verse 16 with stricter linguistic accuracy ("giving aid") rather than forcing it to repeat what verse 14 already accomplished. If verse 16 means He did not take the nature of angels but took human nature, verse 17 becomes somewhat redundant, essentially repeating that He had to be made like His brothers.​

John Owen comments:
I. The Lord Jesus Christ is truly God and man in one person; and this is fully manifested in these words. For,

1. There is supposed in them his pre-existence in another nature than that which he is said here to assume. He w as before, he subsisted before, or he could not have taken on him what he had not. This was his divine nature; as the like is intimated where he is said to be “made flesh,” John 1:14; to be “made of a woman,” Galatians 4:4; to be “manifested in the flesh,” 1 Timothy 3:16; to “take on him the form of a servant,” Philippians 2:8-9; as here, “he took the seed of Abraham.” He was before he did so; that is, as the Son, the Word of God, the Son of God, as in the places mentioned, eternally pre-existing unto this his incarnation: for the subject of this proposition, “He took on him,” etc., denotes a person pre-existing unto the act of taking here ascribed unto him; which was no other than the Son of God.

2. He assumed, he took to himself, another nature, “of the seed of Abraham,” according unto the promise. So, continuing what he was, he became what he was not. For,

3. He took this to be his own nature. He so took it as himself to become truly “the seed of Abraham,” to whom and concerning whom the promise was given, Galatians 3:16; and was himself made “of the seed of David according to the flesh,” Romans 1:3; and “as concerning the flesh came of the fathers,” Romans 9:5; and so was “the son of David, the son of Abraham,” Matthew 1:1. And this could no otherwise be done but,

4. By taking that nature into personal subsistence with himself, in the hypostasis of the Son of God. The nature he assumed could no otherwise become his. For if he had by any ways or means taken the person of a man to be united unto him, in the strictest union that two persons are capable of, a divine and a human, the nature had still been the nature of that other person, and not his own.

5. But he took it to be his own nature; which it could no ways be but by personal union, causing it to subsist in his own person. And he is therefore a true and perfect man: for no more is required to make a complete and perfect man but the entire nature of man subsisting; and this is in Christ as a man, the human nature having a subsistence communicated unto it by the Son of God. And therefore,

6. This is done without a multiplication of persons in him; for the human nature can have no personality of its own, because it was taken to be the nature of another person who was pre-existent unto it, and by assuming of it prevented its proper personality. Neither,

7. Did hence any mixture or confusion of natures ensue, or of the essential properties of them; for he took the seed of Abraham to be his human nature, which if mixed with the divine it could not be. And this he hath done,

8. Inseparably and for ever. Which things are handled at large elsewhere.
 
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Beza's Larger Annotations on Heb. 2:16 (1598 ed.)

16. “Angels” – ἀγγέλους, that is, angelic nature. Where then are those who attribute a spiritual body (that is, of angelic or heavenly substance) to Christ? For I confess indeed that it is spiritual now; but in a far different sense, as we said on 1 Cor. 15:44. ¶ “Assumed.” – ἐπιλαμβάνεται. A little before he said κεκοινώνηκεν for κοινωνεῖ; so now, on the contrary, he uses the present for the past: such interchanges of tenses occur everywhere among the Hebrews. The Vulgate has “apprehendit” (“he took hold”), not badly, but with a word less commonly used for declaring the hypostatic union of the two natures. ¶ “Seed of Abraham” – σπέρματος Ἀβραάμ. That is, the true nature of man, and indeed from the family of Abraham, which also must be understood in this way: not as though the Son of God assumed that man who already subsisted by himself, but because by assuming him He gave subsistence to him in His own person, so that this man never existed as a man by himself. Now this assumption of our nature regards the whole human race universally, yet the effect of it pertains only to the offspring of Abraham, by which name at length all believers began to be understood, when the Gentiles were taken into the place of the unbelieving Jews. Just as among all men and women human nature is universally common, yet not every man is the husband of any woman, and conversely. Thus the fruit of this fellowship is restricted to the offspring of Abraham, that is, to the company of the elect, who are reckoned under the name Church. Therefore Christ is expressly called the Son of Abraham, as we explained on Matt. 1:1. This is, moreover, a remarkable passage for proving the union of the true human nature with the divine, for constituting one Christ; and therefore it is diligently noted by the ancients, especially the Greeks. All the more detestable, then, is the audacity of Castellio, who translates ἐπιλαμβάνεται as “Opitulatur” (“he helps”), not only with a false but also an absurd interpretation, since ἐπιλαμβάνεσθαι never signifies this among the Greeks. But evidently it offended him that the Apostle did not write ἐπιλάβετο. As though in historical narratives this enallage (interchange of tenses) were not most frequently used, even with a certain vividness, so that the thing is not written as done, but as if it were still being done. Finally, in a sentence so clear, and of such weight, was it really necessary to invent a new and unheard‑of meaning of the word ἐπιλαμβάνεσθαι, and one not sufficiently pertinent to the Apostle’s purpose?
 
You are right to notice the importance of this difference, especially as it is a theological commonplace. There is no underlying textual differences in the Greek. It is a translation choice that has emerged from another theological tradition. If you would like to see a sound exposition I recommend John Owen, who also provided a solid refutation of the false interpretation.
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John Owen comments:
I. The Lord Jesus Christ is truly God and man in one person; and this is fully manifested in these words. For,

1. There is supposed in them his pre-existence in another nature than that which he is said here to assume. He w as before, he subsisted before, or he could not have taken on him what he had not. This was his divine nature; as the like is intimated where he is said to be “made flesh,” John 1:14; to be “made of a woman,” Galatians 4:4; to be “manifested in the flesh,” 1 Timothy 3:16; to “take on him the form of a servant,” Philippians 2:8-9; as here, “he took the seed of Abraham.” He was before he did so; that is, as the Son, the Word of God, the Son of God, as in the places mentioned, eternally pre-existing unto this his incarnation: for the subject of this proposition, “He took on him,” etc., denotes a person pre-existing unto the act of taking here ascribed unto him; which was no other than the Son of God.

2. He assumed, he took to himself, another nature, “of the seed of Abraham,” according unto the promise. So, continuing what he was, he became what he was not. For,

3. He took this to be his own nature. He so took it as himself to become truly “the seed of Abraham,” to whom and concerning whom the promise was given, Galatians 3:16; and was himself made “of the seed of David according to the flesh,” Romans 1:3; and “as concerning the flesh came of the fathers,” Romans 9:5; and so was “the son of David, the son of Abraham,” Matthew 1:1. And this could no otherwise be done but,

4. By taking that nature into personal subsistence with himself, in the hypostasis of the Son of God. The nature he assumed could no otherwise become his. For if he had by any ways or means taken the person of a man to be united unto him, in the strictest union that two persons are capable of, a divine and a human, the nature had still been the nature of that other person, and not his own.

5. But he took it to be his own nature; which it could no ways be but by personal union, causing it to subsist in his own person. And he is therefore a true and perfect man: for no more is required to make a complete and perfect man but the entire nature of man subsisting; and this is in Christ as a man, the human nature having a subsistence communicated unto it by the Son of God. And therefore,

6. This is done without a multiplication of persons in him; for the human nature can have no personality of its own, because it was taken to be the nature of another person who was pre-existent unto it, and by assuming of it prevented its proper personality. Neither,

7. Did hence any mixture or confusion of natures ensue, or of the essential properties of them; for he took the seed of Abraham to be his human nature, which if mixed with the divine it could not be. And this he hath done,

8. Inseparably and for ever. Which things are handled at large elsewhere.

Thank you. I deeply appreciate Owen. I will pursue that avenue of reading.
 
Beza's Larger Annotations on Heb. 2:16 (1598 ed.)

16. “Angels” – ἀγγέλους, that is, angelic nature. Where then are those who attribute a spiritual body (that is, of angelic or heavenly substance) to Christ? For I confess indeed that it is spiritual now; but in a far different sense, as we said on 1 Cor. 15:44. ¶ “Assumed.” – ἐπιλαμβάνεται. A little before he said κεκοινώνηκεν for κοινωνεῖ; so now, on the contrary, he uses the present for the past: such interchanges of tenses occur everywhere among the Hebrews. The Vulgate has “apprehendit” (“he took hold”), not badly, but with a word less commonly used for declaring the hypostatic union of the two natures. ¶ “Seed of Abraham” – σπέρματος Ἀβραάμ. That is, the true nature of man, and indeed from the family of Abraham, which also must be understood in this way: not as though the Son of God assumed that man who already subsisted by himself, but because by assuming him He gave subsistence to him in His own person, so that this man never existed as a man by himself. Now this assumption of our nature regards the whole human race universally, yet the effect of it pertains only to the offspring of Abraham, by which name at length all believers began to be understood, when the Gentiles were taken into the place of the unbelieving Jews. Just as among all men and women human nature is universally common, yet not every man is the husband of any woman, and conversely. Thus the fruit of this fellowship is restricted to the offspring of Abraham, that is, to the company of the elect, who are reckoned under the name Church. Therefore Christ is expressly called the Son of Abraham, as we explained on Matt. 1:1. This is, moreover, a remarkable passage for proving the union of the true human nature with the divine, for constituting one Christ; and therefore it is diligently noted by the ancients, especially the Greeks. All the more detestable, then, is the audacity of Castellio, who translates ἐπιλαμβάνεται as “Opitulatur” (“he helps”), not only with a false but also an absurd interpretation, since ἐπιλαμβάνεσθαι never signifies this among the Greeks. But evidently it offended him that the Apostle did not write ἐπιλάβετο. As though in historical narratives this enallage (interchange of tenses) were not most frequently used, even with a certain vividness, so that the thing is not written as done, but as if it were still being done. Finally, in a sentence so clear, and of such weight, was it really necessary to invent a new and unheard‑of meaning of the word ἐπιλαμβάνεσθαι, and one not sufficiently pertinent to the Apostle’s purpose?
Yet again, Theodore Beza illuminates! Thank you!
 
Neither is there any dynamic equivalence. It gives the English reader what the original reader would have understood
Sincere question, Isn't this "dynamic equivalence", i.e. to give the (current) reader what the original reader would have understood?
 
Sincere question, Isn't this "dynamic equivalence", i.e. to give the (current) reader what the original reader would have understood?

Yes, and that's the problem. It assumes that we understand what the original author intended to have the original readers understand.

In translating secular documents such as novels or poetry, it may be a good idea. Less so in prose works intended to convey factual information, but sometimes helpful. With legal documents -- steer clear. This is where international corporate lawyers make their money with bad translations of legal documents.

I know more than a few things on this subject. My wife translated over 50 Christian books for a large Korean publisher, mostly Reformed and Puritan books from the 1600s and 1700s for which the English was beyond the ability of the average theologically trained native speaker of Korean in the 1980s and 1990s. (Far more Koreans are fully bilingual today.) Guess who spent huge amounts of my time helping my wife identify unfootnoted allusions to the King James Version that needed to be translated into Korean with the Scripture references, and explaining the historical and theological context to my wife so she could produce an accurate translation? Even with relatively modern items like Spurgeon and Martyn Lloyd-Jones which she translated, there are enough problems in understanding the context of the 1800s and mid-1900s that I had to give her a lot of help to understand the Downgrade Controversy faced by 19th Century Baptists and the controversies faced by Lloyd-Jones when my wife and I were both alive, but young people, and my wife knew nothing about English Congregational church controversies.

That work is difficult even for a skilled translator who knows both languages fluently and has someone, like me, who is intimately familiar with Congregational church controversies facing Edwards (who my wife also translated some of his work) and Lloyd-Jones.

Now imagine the problems of translating Koine Greek, which nobody today speaks as their native language, with the culture of two thousand years ago.

"Dynamic equivalence" assumes a level of knowledge of first-century Greek and Roman culture that we simply do not have.

It's far better to translate the text as it stands, and if necessary, add an explanatory footnote, rather than trying to tell the reader what the translator is guessing the original human author meant. Inspiration and inerrancy and providential preservation are real, and I do understand that, as some translators say, "we can go to the original Divine Author for guidance," and that's true. But extreme care is needed with the biblical text, at least as much care as a secular translator would take with a legal document between international corporations doing business in different countries with different languages and different legal systems.
 
Sincere question, Isn't this "dynamic equivalence", i.e. to give the (current) reader what the original reader would have understood?

No. Dynamic equivalence is when the thought behind the words are translated into an equivalent thought in the target language. But there are also numerous grammatical elements in a language that convey meaning over and above the verbatim words. What the KJV does in this case is to supply what the original grammar requires but leaves implicit. That is formal equivalence with necessary supplementation to make the ellipsis intelligible in English.
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Yes, and that's the problem. It assumes that we understand what the original author intended to have the original readers understand.

That assumption is not a problem. A translator must understand the author's meaning in order to render his words faithfully. If he is ignorant of what the author intended, then he is only guessing, not translating. Dynamic equivalence is something entirely different. It abandons the form in which the author expressed his thought and replaces them with the translator's reconstruction of that thought. It reshapes the text to produce a similar effect in the modern reader. In doing so, it inevitably adds to or alters the author's meaning.
 
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No. Dynamic equivalence is when the thought behind the words are translated into an equivalent thought in the target language. But there are also numerous grammatical elements in a language that convey meaning over and above the verbatim words. What the KJV does in this case is to supply what the original grammar requires but leaves implicit. That is formal equivalence with necessary supplementation to make the ellipsis intelligible in English.
What do you make of the convention of updating of ancient objects to terms more familiar to the translation's original audience? Some of these (e.g., assarion → penny or farthing, small shield → buckler) are more common than others (e.g., turban → mitre). Do you think the trend toward more literal word choice in the modern translations is an improvement of, or a regress from, the more common use of equivalents in the older translations?
 
What do you make of the convention of updating of ancient objects to terms more familiar to the translation's original audience? Some of these (e.g., assarion → penny or farthing, small shield → buckler) are more common than others (e.g., turban → mitre). Do you think the trend toward more literal word choice in the modern translations is an improvement of, or a regress from, the more common use of equivalents in the older translations?

English lacked the technical vocabulary for certain cultural objects, and those objects had to be rendered in terms a reader could recognise. This was not "dynamic equivalence" in the modern sense but a lexical necessity. It was not ideal, but practical. And these items fall into a category that is not directly connected with faith and life. As with Paul's "books and parchments," the reader may need to do some historical digging to get beyond the bare sense of the term, but nothing essential to doctrine is affected.

In the examples there is an updating for the benefit of the modern reader. If modern translations have found more accurate or intelligible words, that is a good thing; the only question is whether "word borrowing" accomplishes that goal.

There is a small booklet available for the KJV that gives equivalent words to help readers understand older vocabulary. Edward Hills even recommends writing these into the margin. That assumes, of course, that the reader is serious and willing to learn, which is what any responsible Bible reader should be.
 
I
Sincere question, Isn't this "dynamic equivalence", i.e. to give the (current) reader what the original reader would have understood?

I studied under some of the NIV translators.

Now I need to be the first one to say that I am **NOT** competent in Greek, and my Hebrew is less than useless. I defer to professionals on specifics about translation quality from those two languages. I know what I can do, and I know what I cannot do, and the biblical languages are a "use it or lose it" skill. I never became good enough to use them proficiently, and I have only rarely, for the last three decades, been in an ecclesiastical context where any pastors knew Greek or Hebrew. Most never went to Bible college or seminary, and where I live now, the large majority never went to college at all. Learning the original languages isn't on even the most distant radar of most people who I deal with.

What I will say is that I am confident that the "dynamic equivalence" views being advocated at Calvin, both by the translators and those who supported the production of the NIV, would be regarded as beyond unacceptable in international business, and unacceptable in courtroom translation work. It's telling the reader what the translator thinks the author meant, not what the text actually says.

I wouldn't tolerate that in secular work and it shouldn't be tolerated in the church.

If we're translating a Russian novel or an Italian poem, maybe it would be okay. Maybe. Even there, it's iffy and depends on whether we're talking about a lay audience that appreciates the poetry, or an academic journal on the poet or novelist's underlying biography and how it affected his literary product.

Not for a text for which accuracy is essential, rather than literary quality.
 
RE Heb. 2:16
Beza was of a certain opinion, many Greek scholars are obviously of another. None of the previously shown contextual and lingual indicators supporting the majority view have been shown erroneous.

Yet again, Theodore Beza illuminates!

Especially, I'm sure Presbyterians will agree, when he says things like "Nor does βαπτίζειν signify to wash, except by consequence; for it properly signifies to immerse for the sake of imbuing. [...] Christ commanded us to be baptized, by which word it is certain that immersion is signified. [etc.]" ;)
 
RE Heb. 2:16
Beza was of a certain opinion, many Greek scholars are obviously of another. None of the previously shown contextual and lingual indicators supporting the majority view have been shown erroneous.

Beza shows you where the idea came from in the 16th century. Socinians picked up on the idea, as will be seen in Owen's comments.
 
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