A death like his?

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Jar1979

Puritan Board Freshman
I would be very much helped if you would give your exegetical insight to these two translations of Romans 6:5

"For if we have become united with Him in the likeness of His death, certainly we shall also be in the likeness of His resurrection" NASB and basically KJV, NKJV, NIV

"For if we have been united with him in a death like his, we shall certainly be united with him in a resurrection like his" ESV, NRSV

Is "in the likeness of His death" the same as "in a death like his"? They sound different to me. Thanks in advance for your input.
 
OK, given the lack of response my question must not be clear. Let me try to do better. If we are united in the likeness of His death, "His" death receives the stress. We would be included in or participate in His death. If, however, we are united in a death "like" His, the emphasis falls in a different place. It sounds like we share a similar kind of death but not necesssarily His death. Does this help pinpoint what I'm asking for?
 
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Rick,

I think the difference is simply a variation of English. The ESV and the NRSV likely follow the RSV in "in a death like his" because it sounds more natural to the English ear (hence also the NIV translates it this way. The Greek is closer to the other translation "in the likeness of His death" (τῷ ὁμοιώματι τοῦ θανάτου αὐτοῦ). The second half of the verse, in typical Greek does not even repeat the word "likeness" (τῷ ὁμοιώματι); it simply has a parallelism with death/resurrection.

In fairness, the word "likeness" is being used here to draw an analogy, not to express some kind of existential form of "likeness" (cf. the Platonic realm). Paul uses a very similar phrase in Romans 5:14 referring to Adam's sin.

I hope that helps.
 
OK, given the lack of response my question must not be clear. Let me try to do better. If we are united in the likeness of His death, "His" death receives the stress. We would be included in or participate in His death. If, however, we are united in a death "like" His, the emphasis falls in a different place. It sounds like we share a similar kind of death but not necesssarily His death. Does this help pinpoint what I'm asking for?

What is being taught is that Christ's death was our death.

Jesus Christ died substitutionally in our stead.

The gift of faith from God gives us understanding and appreciation of this atonement worked on the cross on our behalf.

Thus, because of this substitutional death and forensic (legal) atonement worked for the sons of God . . . the answer is NOT that we share a similar death, but that Christ's death was not His, but ours!!!

His righteous and obedient life, death, and resurrection is not for us to emulate, but rather to appreciate and trust that He indeed simulated and achieved all things pertaining to holy life and death under the Law, on our behalf.

(And following, since His death was our death . . . His resurrection also guarantees, and will prove to be, our very resurrection.)
 
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