Here's a question for Greek scholars (not me), the Westminster assembly in contending with the congregationalist members adduce Acts 2:1, and say the following:
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Reason 2. ‘But afterwards (Acts 2:1) another meeting of theirs is expressed in the same words, “They were all met with one accord,”’ etc.
To which we answer still, that it is not proved that they all there mentioned were “all the church.” Beza said that in two ancient copies he finds tô Apostolô, and brings probable reasons why they “all” should be meant of the apostles only.
In what work would Beza discuss this? I have looked at Annotationes, and though I don't really read Latin, that didn't look like it. The Greek is not given for the alternate at least. Does Beza have a commentary on the book of Acts? Also, the transliteration may be off. Below is the text of the Greek.
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