Osage Bluestem
Puritan Board Junior
It seems that a baptized member is in the visible covenant of Grace (visible church) regardless if he is a paedo or a credo.
Is following the Lord in obedience in baptism the responsibility of the parents to baptize their children or is it the responsibility of the person who has just placed his faith in Christ?
It seems that baptism is an outward sign that you have died with Christ and shead your old self and rose with him again to walk in a new life. How can an infant really fulfill the outward sign of baptism when he has not had a life and has not placed his faith in Christ and has not risen to walk in obedience to his Lord? This question has been haunting me for awhile now. It's driving me nuts. I want to know the truth.
I am confused about baptism. Why is it so difficult? I don't even understand why God told us to do it. It seems like a ritual.
We are told that we must baptize our children or we sin because baptism = circumscision. I learned that from my time in the RCC. I'm worried that maybe the only reason I believe that way is because I have been deceived by something the RCC made up and I am hanging onto that because I am afraid to offend God because it is supposed to be a sin not to baptize my children.
How do we explain these passages if baptism is circumcision?
Romans 2:29 KJV
[29] But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.
Galatians 5:6 KJV
[6] For in Jesus Christ neither circumcision availeth anything, nor uncircumcision; but faith which worketh by love.
Is following the Lord in obedience in baptism the responsibility of the parents to baptize their children or is it the responsibility of the person who has just placed his faith in Christ?
It seems that baptism is an outward sign that you have died with Christ and shead your old self and rose with him again to walk in a new life. How can an infant really fulfill the outward sign of baptism when he has not had a life and has not placed his faith in Christ and has not risen to walk in obedience to his Lord? This question has been haunting me for awhile now. It's driving me nuts. I want to know the truth.
I am confused about baptism. Why is it so difficult? I don't even understand why God told us to do it. It seems like a ritual.
We are told that we must baptize our children or we sin because baptism = circumscision. I learned that from my time in the RCC. I'm worried that maybe the only reason I believe that way is because I have been deceived by something the RCC made up and I am hanging onto that because I am afraid to offend God because it is supposed to be a sin not to baptize my children.
How do we explain these passages if baptism is circumcision?
Romans 2:29 KJV
[29] But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.
Galatians 5:6 KJV
[6] For in Jesus Christ neither circumcision availeth anything, nor uncircumcision; but faith which worketh by love.