I posted the following question on another message board:
One of the responses I received was:
I am being honest here. My knowledge of covenant theology is dismal. I was a died-in-the-wool dispensationalist up until two years ago. I know what dispensationalism teaches about these passages, but that is all I know. I am asking for some well researched views.
Thanks in advance.
Eschatologically speaking, are these chapters dealing with the same event (the 2nd coming)or separate events (the second coming and the rapture)? I am interested in the reasearch you used to come with you opinion. I will certainly share mine as well. I am a historic premillenialist (in the same mold as the late James Boice). I do not hold to a premillennial rapture.
One of the responses I received was:
The Olivet Discourse was written to Jews, not the church. It is The Gospel of the Kingdom postponed until the endtimes. It describes what happens during and after the Tribulation for Jews. The church is absent, having been raptured prior to the tribulation. It envisions the 2nd Coming, the destruction of the antichrist and his evil forces, the advent of the Kingdom promised to the Jews, with the beginning of the 1,000 year reign of Christ on earth. Daniel 2, 7, 9, 12, and Revelation 13 deserve careful study. For the proper context, read all of Matthew 24 and 25, Luke 21:20-24, and 2 Th 2:1-12, merged with:
I am being honest here. My knowledge of covenant theology is dismal. I was a died-in-the-wool dispensationalist up until two years ago. I know what dispensationalism teaches about these passages, but that is all I know. I am asking for some well researched views.
Thanks in advance.