From Exclusive Psalmody: A Biblical Defense by Brian Schwertley:
When interpreting religious terminology used by Paul in his epistles, there are certain rules of interpretation which should be followed. First, the religious thinking and world view of the apostles was essentially from the Old Testament and Jesus Christ, not Greek heathenism. Therefore, when Paul discusses doctrine or worship, the first place to look for help in understanding religious terms is the Old Testament. We often find Hebrew expressions or terms expressed in koine Greek. Second, we must keep in mind that the churches that Paul founded in Asia consisted of converted Jews, Gentile proselytes to Old Testament Judaism (God-fearers), and Gentile pagans. These churches had a Greek version of the Old Testament called the Septuagint. When Paul expressed Old Testament ideas to a Greek-speaking audience, he would use the religious terminology of the Septuagint. If the terms hymns (humnois) and spiritual songs (odais pheumatikais) were defined within the New Testament, then looking to the Septuagint for the meaning of these words would be unnecessary. Given the fact, however, that these terms are rarely used in the New Testament and cannot be defined within their immediate context apart from a knowledge of the Old Testament, it would be exegetically irresponsible to ignore how these words are used in the Septuagint version of the Old Testament.
When we examine the Septuagint, we find that the terms psalm (psalmos), hymn (humnos), and song (odee) used by Paul clearly refer to the Old Testament book of Psalms and not to ancient or modern uninspired hymns or songs.
Bushell writes:
Psalmos occurs some 87 times in the Septuagint, some 78 of which are in the Psalms themselves, and 67 times in the psalm titles. It also forms the title to the Greek version of the psalter. Humnos occurs some 17 times in the Septuagint, 13 of which are in the Psalms, six times in the titles. In 2 Samuel, 1 & 2 Chronicles and Nehemiah there are some 16 examples in which the Psalms are called "˜hymns´ (humnoi) or "˜songs´ (odai) and the singing of them is called "˜hymning´ (humneo, humnodeo, humnesis). Odee occurs some 80 times in the Septuagint, 45 of which are in the Psalms, 36 in the Psalm titles.[25]
In twelve Psalm titles we find both psalm and song; and, in two others we find psalm and hymn. "œPsalm seventy-six is designated "˜psalm, hymn and song.´ And at the end of the first seventy two psalms we read "˜the hymns of David the son of Jesse are ended´ (Ps. 72:20). In other words, there is no more reason to think that the Apostle referred to psalms when he said "˜psalms,´ than when he said "˜hymns´ and "˜songs,´ for all three were biblical terms for (the) psalms in the book of psalms itself."[26] To ignore how Paul´s audience would have understood these terms and how these terms are defined by the Bible; and then instead to import non-biblical modern meanings into these terms is exegetical malpractice.
One of the most common objections against the idea that in Ephesians 5:19 and Colossians 3:16 Paul is speaking of the book of Psalms is that it would be absurd for apostle to say, "œsing psalms, psalms, and psalms." This objection fails to consider the fact that a common literary method among the ancient Jews was to use a triadic form of expression to express an idea, act, or object. The Bible contains many examples of triadic expression. For example: Exodus 34:7"”"œiniquity and transgression and sin"; Deuteronomy 5:31 and 6:1"”"œcommandments and statutes and judgments"; Matthew 22:37"”"œwith all your heart, with all your soul, and with all your mind" (cf. Mark 12:30; Luke 10:27); Acts 2:22"”"œmiracles and wonders and signs"; Ephesians 5:19 and Colossians 3:16"”"œpsalms and hymns and spiritual song." "œThe triadic distinction used by Paul would be readily understood by those familiar with their Hebrew OT Psalter or the Greek Septuagint, where the Psalm titles are differentiated psalms, hymns, and songs. This interpretation does justice to the analogy of Scripture, i.e., Scripture is its own best interpreter."[27]
The interpretation that says that "œpsalms, hymns, and spiritual songs" refers to the inspired book of Psalms also receives biblical support from the immediate context and grammar of these passages. In Colossians 3:16 we are exhorted: "œLet the word of Christ dwell in you richly" In this passage the word of Christ is very likely synonymous with the word of God.
In 1 Pet. 1:11 it is stated that "˜the spirit of Christ´ was in the Old Testament prophets and through them testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ and the glory which should follow. If, as is definitely stated, the Spirit of Christ testified these things through the prophets, then Christ was the real Author of those Scriptures. Prominent among those prophecies, which so testified concerning Christ, is the Book of Psalms, and therefore Christ is the Author of the Psalms.[28]
After Paul exhorts the Colossian church to let the word of Christ dwell in them richly, he immediately points them to the book of Psalms; a book which comprehends "œmost beautifully and briefly everything that is in the entire Bible;"[29] a book far superior to any human devotional book, which Calvin called "œan anatomy of all parts of the soul;"[30] a book which is "œa compendium of all divinity."[31] Do we let the Scriptures, the word of Christ dwell within us when we sing uninspired human compositions in worship? No, we do not! If we are to sing and meditate upon the word of Christ, we must sing the songs that Christ has written by His Spirit"”the book of Psalms.
The grammar also supports the contention that Paul was speaking of the book of Psalms. In our English Bibles the adjective spiritual only applies to the word songs ("œspiritual songs"). In the Greek language, however, when an adjective immediately follows two or more nouns, it applies to all the preceding nouns.
John Murray writes,
Why does the word pneumatikos [spiritual][32] qualify odais and not psalmois and hymnois? A reasonable answer to this question is that pneumatikais qualifies all three datives and that its gender (fem.) is due to attraction to the gender of the noun that is closest to it. Another distinct possibility, made particularly plausible by the omission of the copulative in Colossians 3:16, is that "˜Spiritual songs´ are the genus of which "˜psalms´ and "˜hymns´ are the species. This is the view of Meyer, for example. On either of these assumptions the psalms, hymns, and songs are all "˜Spiritual´ and therefore all inspired by the Holy Spirit. The bearing of this upon the question at issue is perfectly apparent. Uninspired hymns are immediately excluded.[33]
If one wants to argue that spiritual does not apply to psalms and hymns, then one must answer two pertinent questions. First, why would Paul insist on divine inspiration for songs, yet permit uninspired hymns? We can safely assume that Paul was not irrational. Second, given the fact that psalms refers to divinely inspired songs, it would be unscriptural not to apply spiritual to that term. Furthermore, since we have already established that the phrase "œpsalms, hymns, and spiritual songs" refers to the divinely inspired book of Psalms, it is only natural to apply spiritual to all three terms. Since the book of Psalms is composed of divinely inspired (or spiritual) psalms, hymns, and spiritual songs, we obey God only when we praise Him using the biblical Psalter. Uninspired hymns do not meet the scriptural criteria for authorized praise.
If not, then you refute your appeal to Revelation as a source of information on how to properly worship God today.
They were convinced that the only songs that should be sung were the 32 Psalms. Along comes David (or someone else) and says aha! I have penned a New Song. Let's just tuck it in behind #32 and call it the 33rd Psalm. Would not the EP of the day say, "Nay! thrice Nay! you are adding to the 32 Psalms".
