Here's another question:
How can one verse (or a dozen...) in the Bible "refute" a biblical concept? Is ELECTION in the Bible, or isn't it? So, I want to know what so-snd-so does with the verses in the Bible that actually speak of "election."
What I hear people say who dispute our understanding of election is, God "chooses" us (elects us) once we "elect" him (choose him). In other words, God doesn't have "free choice," or rather he subordinates his "election" of us to our "election" of him. He doesn't elect sinners of his free grace and mercy, he elects the sinners smart or brave enough to elect him.
In their view, God may have "loved" humanity first in some sort of vague, general, non-specific sense, such that in consequence some love him (hence the text, "we love him because he first loved us"). However, they say, "he elected me because I first elected him." God, the Great Reactionary in the Sky. His love for me didn't move him to elect me; no, MY election moved him to love ME.
When I go in a Dunkin's, and I choose a jelly-filled from the slate; or better still, I choose the third row, third doughnut from the left, on a sheet of essentially identical glazed; who in their right mind thinks that that pastry "chose" me first?
The Bible places God in "another category" entirely from us. The potter is closer to the clay he makes the pot out of (both made of the dust of the ground), than the divine Potter is to we dirt-machines. Correction: to we rebellious dead-dirt-machines. How can we "who are accustomed to doing evil" ever hope to elect God?
God acts for us and upon us, so that we may act in response. And what he begins in us, he finishes. Any theology that teaches "God waits (at any point) for us to do our part so he can finish saving us" is a theology of self-salvation, another gospel.