CharlieJ
Puritan Board Junior
This post is about the interpretation of εν Χριστω in the Pauline corpus, but especially in Eph. 4:32. Specifically:
1) Does εν Χριστω sometimes or always carry a specialized theological meaning in the Pauline writings?
2) On the basis of the answer to #1, plus contextual factors, is there any warrant for the KJV's rendering of "for Christ's sake" in Eph. 4:32?
1) Does εν Χριστω sometimes or always carry a specialized theological meaning in the Pauline writings?
2) On the basis of the answer to #1, plus contextual factors, is there any warrant for the KJV's rendering of "for Christ's sake" in Eph. 4:32?