For Christ's Sake? Eph. 4:32

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CharlieJ

Puritan Board Junior
This post is about the interpretation of εν Χριστω in the Pauline corpus, but especially in Eph. 4:32. Specifically:

1) Does εν Χριστω sometimes or always carry a specialized theological meaning in the Pauline writings?

2) On the basis of the answer to #1, plus contextual factors, is there any warrant for the KJV's rendering of "for Christ's sake" in Eph. 4:32?
 
Though both translations "in Christ" and "for Christ's sake" are orthodox in teaching, the "in Christ" is a better translation of the Greek.
 
The phrase εν Χριστω is used at least 9 times in Ephesians and more than seventy times in the N.T. It most often speaks of our positional standing of "union with Christ" and is the basis not only of our blessings but also of the power for carrying out the imperatives of Christian duty.
 
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