God Ordaining Sin

JohnDickerson

Puritan Board Freshman
Good morning, I have said in other posts that I am new to Reformed theology and am trying to read as much as I can on the matter. This morning I had a lot of thoughts on God ordaining sin and wanted to put it into writing for my own clarity and possibly to use as a brief defense of my theology to my friends. Can you all please let me know if my writing is theologically sound and what needs adjusting? I of course gleamed my thoughts from the Bible and other writing such as the 1689 Confession I hold to, but the writing is my own. Thank you for reading my thoughts and sharing your wisdom. Feel free to critique my grammar and punctuation too.

      In my musings about God ordaining sin, (but in no way being the author of sin) it came into my mind the biblical truth about Christ being the last Adam. God, in His infinite wisdom and knowledge ordained the fall of man, but in such a way as to not force Adam to sin, so as to bring more glory to Himself by bringing many children into His kingdom.
      The first Adam in no way was tempted to sin from within; but instead was tempted from outside his being by Satan, that wicked serpent. If he had been tempted from within it would mean God created Adam with sin already, making God the author of sin. God forbid! Adam was created a good creature made from the dust of the earth, given free will to rightly follow God, or disobey His commands. Adam, of his own free choosing decided to disobey God and plunge all mankind into a nature of sin and making them slaves to sin.
      Christ, being both fully God and fully man, was in all points tempted as we are, yet without sin. This temptation like the first Adam was not one from within, but wholly from Satan and his subjects on earth. As the scripture says that Christ is the last Adam, so must Christ's human nature not be fallen (as that would make Him a slave to sin and a great blasphemy). Christ human nature was made like unto the first Adam, a man created wholly good but with the free will to follow His Father or disobey. Again, we can draw similarities between the outward temptation of Adam and the outward temptation of Christ. While Adam fell to temptation, Christ completely resisted and did not sin but was punished as if He did sin.
      As the sin of Adam doomed all mankind to be slaves of sin, so does the perfect righteousness of Christ bring justification for all that believe. Those who God calls to believe on His Son are no longer slave to sin, but slaves to Christ. Unlike the first Adam, God now gives us grace which results in our ongoing sanctification until the blessed day when our Lord Jesus Christ will return.
 
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I'm not so sure about the distinction between internal and external temptation. To me, Adam's state of perfection was also a state of grace that kept him from temptation, internal or external - not a state of independently noble free will that faced and overcame temptation until it failed in the fall.

God ordained the fall and to this end withheld his grace and allowed Adam to be tempted, knowing that apart from grace, Adam would sin.

I don't see any conflict between Adam's perfection and his reliance upon grace for that perfection, because it's only natural that creation depends and should always depend upon the grace of the creator. We read in the 104th psalm about the glory of God in his creation, how the multitude of small and great beasts wait upon him for their food, thrive and play in the enjoyment of his grace, are troubled when he hides his face, and die when he withholds their breath. Just as the leviathan dies when God withholds breath, so man spiritually dies when God withholds the holy spirit that gives him perfect life.

We weren't created to be perfect self-sufficient creatures apart from our creator - we were created to glorify him and enjoy him forever.
 
I'm not so sure about the distinction between internal and external temptation. To me, Adam's state of perfection was also a state of grace that kept him from temptation, internal or external - not a state of independently noble free will that faced and overcame temptation until it failed in the fall.

God ordained the fall and to this end withheld his grace and allowed Adam to be tempted, knowing that apart from grace, Adam would sin.

I don't see any conflict between Adam's perfection and his reliance upon grace for that perfection, because it's only natural that creation depends and should always depend upon the grace of the creator. We read in the 104th psalm about the glory of God in his creation, how the multitude of small and great beasts wait upon him for their food, thrive and play in the enjoyment of his grace, are troubled when he hides his face, and die when he withholds their breath. Just as the leviathan dies when God withholds breath, so man spiritually dies when God withholds the holy spirit that gives him perfect life.

We weren't created to be perfect self-sufficient creatures apart from our creator - we were created to glorify him and enjoy him forever.
I think we're talking about 2 different kinds of grace right? I take the 104th Psalms as a sort of grace all creatures enjoy, but it is only a saving grace for the elect. Adam was under the Covenant of Works, even though he lived with a sort of grace that everyone has. I'm not sure how Adam could have had an internal temptation prior to the fall? Most definitely Adam was not self sufficiently perfect, I would not try to say that, but human nature was not corrupted yet. I feel as if Romans 5 talks about this.
I also don't see Adam overcoming any temptation prior to eating from the forbidden tree, because there was no temptation to overcome. Adam failed the first time there was a temptation because he was under the Covenant of Works and not the Covenant of Grace.
This is just all my initial thoughts and could definitely be wrong. Thanks for taking the time to reply.
 
I'm not sure how Adam could have had an internal temptation prior to the fall?
That's why I say the fall from grace must have preceded and allowed the temptation. We are culturally influenced by the Romanist or Arminian notion that Adam removed himself from God's grace by willfully sinning. But grace isn't a reward for obedience - it is something undeserved and free. We can no more remove ourselves from grace than we can ascend to it.
 
That's why I say the fall from grace must have preceded and allowed the temptation. We are culturally influenced by the Romanist or Arminian notion that Adam removed himself from God's grace by willfully sinning. But grace isn't a reward for obedience - it is something undeserved and free. We can no more remove ourselves from grace than we can ascend to it.
Undoubtedly some Arminian notions still influence me in unknowing ways. How can we though treat the Covenant of Works as if its the Covenant of Grace? Adam broke the agreement and disobeyed God. I do not see anywhere in that Covenant where God was giving him grace like we see in the Covenant of Grace, then removed it from him so he would sin. Adam chose earthly things because although his nature was not evil and had chosen to obey God, when presented with an earthly temptation he chose it according to his nature. Of course I believe all this is my own speculation, since it is not explicitly stated in scripture.
 
I actually like the way the 1689 phrasing chapter 6.1. I think it clearly expresses Adam’s freedom in sinning more clearly than WCF 6.1

“Although God created man upright and perfect, and gave him a righteous law, which had been unto life had he kept it, and threatened death upon the breach thereof,1yet he did not long abide in this honor; Satan using the subtlety of the serpent to subdue Eve, then by her seducing Adam, who, without any compulsion, did willfully transgress the law of their creation, and the command given to them, in eating the forbidden fruit, which God was pleased, according to His wise and holy counsel to permit, having purposed to order it to His own glory.”
 
Good morning, I have said in other posts that I am new to Reformed theology and am trying to read as much as I can on the matter. This morning I had a lot of thoughts on God ordaining sin and wanted to put it into writing for my own clarity and possibly to use as a brief defense of my theology to my friends. Can you all please let me know if my writing is theologically sound and what needs adjusting? I of course gleamed my thoughts from the Bible and other writing such as the 1689 Confession I hold to, but the writing is my own. Thank you for reading my thoughts and sharing your wisdom. Feel free to critique my grammar and punctuation too.

      In my musings about God ordaining sin, (but in no way being the author of sin) it came into my mind the biblical truth about Christ being the last Adam. God, in His infinite wisdom and knowledge ordained the fall of man, but in such a way as to not force Adam to sin, so as to bring more glory to Himself by bringing many children into His kingdom.
      The first Adam in no way was tempted to sin from within; but instead was tempted from outside his being by Satan, that wicked serpent. If he had been tempted from within it would mean God created Adam with sin already, making God the author of sin. God forbid! Adam was created a good creature made from the dust of the earth, given free will to rightly follow God, or disobey His commands. Adam, of his own free choosing decided to disobey God and plunge all mankind into a nature of sin and making them slaves to sin.
      Christ, being both fully God and fully man, was in all points tempted as we are, yet without sin. This temptation like the first Adam was not one from within, but wholly from Satan and his subjects on earth. As the scripture says that Christ is the last Adam, so must Christ's human nature not be fallen (as that would make Him a slave to sin and a great blasphemy). Christ human nature was made like unto the first Adam, a man created wholly good but with the free will to follow His Father or disobey. Again, we can draw similarities between the outward temptation of Adam and the outward temptation of Christ. While Adam fell to temptation, Christ completely resisted and did not sin but was punished as if He did sin.
      As the sin of Adam doomed all mankind to be slaves of sin, so does the perfect righteousness of Christ bring justification for all that believe. Those who God calls to believe on His Son are no longer slave to sin, but slaves to Christ. Unlike the first Adam, God now gives us grace which results in our ongoing sanctification until the blessed day when our Lord Jesus Christ will return.
When we talk about ordaining we mean it serves His purpose. If sin was not decreed and it came in anyways, something came into being beyond His control. Sure, ppl try to sidestep that and say He allowed it, but didn’t decree it. Distinction without a difference. Sin serves His purpose as we clearly see it in the crucifixion of His Son. Acts 4:27-28 states this reality. If sin doesn’t serve His purpose, and He could have stop it but chose not to, that would make Him a cruel God. Yet, we no He is Light and there is no darkness in Him whatsoever.


Others will better articulate this than I can. I gave you my version of Willis’ Notes****.


**** I claim no affiliation with Cliff
 
When we talk about ordaining we mean it serves His purpose. If sin was not decreed and it came in anyways, something came into being beyond His control. Sure, ppl try to sidestep that and say He allowed it, but didn’t decree it. Distinction without a difference. Sin serves His purpose as we clearly see it in the crucifixion of His Son. Acts 4:27-28 states this reality. If sin doesn’t serve His purpose, and He could have stop it but chose not to, that would make Him a cruel God. Yet, we no He is Light and there is no darkness in Him whatsoever.


Others will better articulate this than I can. I gave you my version of Willis’ Notes****.


**** I claim no affiliation with Cliff
I fully agree with that. I hope I somewhat conveyed that in my writing. Thanks for sharing.
 
That's why I say the fall from grace must have preceded and allowed the temptation. We are culturally influenced by the Romanist or Arminian notion that Adam removed himself from God's grace by willfully sinning. But grace isn't a reward for obedience - it is something undeserved and free. We can no more remove ourselves from grace than we can ascend to it.
The fundamental problem with this line of thinking is that there was nothing to constrain the will of Adam. Why does man not have free will to do good? The implication of this is that it is because of man’s original nature, which certainly deprecates rather than upholds the perfection of God’s creation and man’s dependence on God, it essentially imputes sinfulness to pre-lapsarian man and sets grace against nature. The historical, Reformed (not Romanist or Arminian) answer is that man does not have free will because his will is bound by sin. Adam’s will was not bound by sin, therefore Adam’s will was free. He was not upheld until that moment by an external divine grace, but by his own purity of nature, nor could we impute any grace to Adam before the fall besides the simple fact of his existence.
 
@Christodulus Well said.

I think the following passages clear up what is left unclear about Adam’s state in chapter 6.

WCF 9.1-2

“God has endued the will of man with that natural liberty and power of acting upon choice, that it is neither forced, nor by any necessity of nature determined to do good or evil”

“Man, in his state of innocency, had freedom and power to will and to do that which is good and well-pleasing to God, but yet mutably, so that he might fall from it.”
 
How can we though treat the Covenant of Works as if its the Covenant of Grace? Adam broke the agreement and disobeyed God. I do not see anywhere in that Covenant where God was giving him grace like we see in the Covenant of Grace, then removed it from him so he would sin.
I don't think the gracious state of perfection in which Adam was preserved for a time is the same as the covenant of grace. Clearly we who benefit from that covenant are not preserved in a perfect state of grace as Adam was.

The covenant of grace is specifically the intra-trinitarian covenant to extend the grace of salvation to the fallen and sinful elect because of Christ's perfect obedience and sacrifice for them. God grants many forms of grace that are not tied to the covenant of grace.

Adam did break God's covenant by sinning, and any prior grace he received that warded him from temptation doesn't change that.
The fundamental problem with this line of thinking is that there was nothing to constrain the will of Adam. Why does man not have free will to do good? The implication of this is that it is because of man’s original nature, which certainly deprecates rather than upholds the perfection of God’s creation and man’s dependence on God, it essentially imputes sinfulness to pre-lapsarian man and sets grace against nature. The historical, Reformed (not Romanist or Arminian) answer is that man does not have free will because his will is bound by sin. Adam’s will was not bound by sin, therefore Adam’s will was free.
I would say that Adam's will was not constrained before the fall, but that he was graciously protected from any temptation. He had free will to do good, and he did good freely and willingly with no temptation to do otherwise. Adam's original nature was perfect just like all the other creations - not in a self-sufficient way, but in a way that perfectly depended upon God's gracious providence and protection. Again, I do not impute sinfulness to pre-lapsarian man because I say that the lapse preceded and allowed the sin. It seems to me that the contrary view, that the lapse was consequent to sin, is the one which imputes sinfulness to pre-lapsarian man. This is why OP is at pains to distinguish between internal and external temptations to explain how Adam was able to secumb to temptation in his state of moral perfection.

When you say "Reformed (not Romanist or Arminian)", you don't mean that the view I previously described as Romanist or Arminian is the Reformed view do you? -the view that humans can willfully fall from grace?
He was not upheld until that moment by an external divine grace, but by his own purity of nature, nor could we impute any grace to Adam before the fall besides the simple fact of his existence.
Of course he was. Every aspect of his existence, which is no simple fact, was afloat on the sea of God's gracious manifold providence - the air he breathed, the ground he walked, the light that revealed creation to him, the garden of wholesome and benign plants and animals, the wife who crowned his perfection. Why object to attributing his moral perfection to the same manifold grace that pervaded his world?
 
I would say that Adam's will was not constrained before the fall, but that he was graciously protected from any temptation. He had free will to do good, and he did good freely and willingly with no temptation to do otherwise. Adam's original nature was perfect just like all the other creations - not in a self-sufficient way, but in a way that perfectly depended upon God's gracious providence and protection.
There is absolutely no such thing, even in concept, as a “self-sufficient creature”. Apart from the will of God, Adam does not even exist, but this is not the question. Adam’s original nature was perfect such that he did not require a special grace of God in order to avoid sin and do his duty. Indeed, insofar as he remained upright he did so through his own free will alone which had no need to be assisted by grace. Adam’s righteous life before the fall truly was only by God’s providence, in the same way that a rock only falls down a hill by God’s providence, but it is to misconstrue grace to call this “grace”. Within time, Adam acted alone.
Again, I do not impute sinfulness to pre-lapsarian man because I say that the lapse preceded and allowed the sin. It seems to me that the contrary view, that the lapse was consequent to sin, is the one which imputes sinfulness to pre-lapsarian man. This is why OP is at pains to distinguish between internal and external temptations to explain how Adam was able to secumb to temptation in his state of moral perfection.
I am skeptical of any speculation as to the nature of man’s experience of his own free will before the fall, because it is utterly foreign to us. But the lapse was consequent and caused by sin, since it was precisely the reward which was merited by that sin. Adam sinned not because he was a sinner, but he became a sinner because he sinned. I do not see how this could not impute sinfulness to him, since if he had a pure and perfect nature in which he could freely will to reject temptation, why would he be given this supposed grace, and why would its removal ensure his fall?
When you say "Reformed (not Romanist or Arminian)", you don't mean that the view I previously described as Romanist or Arminian is the Reformed view do you? -the view that humans can willfully fall from grace?
No, I object to the construal of the fall of man as a fall from grace in the first place. Adam certainly did fall willfully. On the contrary, I think what you’re saying smacks of the Romanist doctrine of the superadded grace (see Summa Theologica part 1 question 95 and the Sentences book 2 distinction 24 for reference).
Of course he was. Every aspect of his existence, which is no simple fact, was afloat on the sea of God's gracious manifold providence - the air he breathed, the ground he walked, the light that revealed creation to him, the garden of wholesome and benign plants and animals, the wife who crowned his perfection. Why object to attributing his moral perfection to the same manifold grace that pervaded his world?
By “simple fact”, I mean this individual fact considered in isolation from anything else. And these other things could hardly be distinguished from the fact he existed, since he could hardly exist without them. But I confess it is dubious to me to speak even of creation as a grace, because grace is unmerited favor, and it seems strange to speak of a thing not existing as being shown favor. Truly, life was a gift, but I am hesitant to call it grace, though if a man does I have no objection. However, man’s continuing existence after his initial creation was strictly not gracious in any sense. Upon making man God entered into covenant with him (and I do not see how God would ever have done otherwise with His own image), the terms of which promised to him eternal life on condition of perpetual obedience. As long as Adam obeyed he would live, not on the basis of grace, but of merit; Adam then had life because he deserved to live, and for God to take it away from him for any reason other than the failure of the covenant would be for Him to cruelly and unjustly break the covenant Himself, which He absolutely could not do.
 
Adam’s original nature was perfect such that he did not require a special grace of God in order to avoid sin and do his duty. Indeed, insofar as he remained upright he did so through his own free will alone which had no need to be assisted by grace. Adam’s righteous life before the fall truly was only by God’s providence, in the same way that a rock only falls down a hill by God’s providence, but it is to misconstrue grace to call this “grace”.
Why do you assert this so strongly? If God providentially shielded Adam from temptation, is this a violation of his free will or nature? I agree with the rock falling down a hill analogy - If God does not allow any obstacle to impede the rock, it falls: if God allows the rock to encounter an obstacle, the rock is halted or turned aside. In absence of temptation, Adam's perfect nature desired only what was right: when confronted with temptation, he desired what was wrong and sinned. That doesn't mean his nature was sinful before the fall, it only means that his nature was peccable and depended upon God's protection like everything else in the garden. Is resistance to temptation the definition of a perfect nature, or is it innocence and benevolence?

I am skeptical of any speculation as to the nature of man’s experience of his own free will before the fall, because it is utterly foreign to us. But the lapse was consequent and caused by sin, since it was precisely the reward which was merited by that sin. Adam sinned not because he was a sinner, but he became a sinner because he sinned. I do not see how this could not impute sinfulness to him, since if he had a pure and perfect nature in which he could freely will to reject temptation, why would he be given this supposed grace, and why would its removal ensure his fall?
You here appear to equate the lapse or fall with entering a state of sin. But if grace was the only thing preventing Adam from facing temptation and becoming a sinner, yet falling from that grace does not make him a sinner - sinning still makes him a sinner. He had a pure and perfect nature because it was undefiled by sin, not because his nature made him especially likely to reject temptation. Peccability is not sinfulness. Without protection from temptation, was Adam's will bound to sin? - no. But his nature was not impeccable and the temptation was strong and God ordained that Adam would not reject the temptation.

No, I object to the construal of the fall of man as a fall from grace in the first place. Adam certainly did fall willfully. On the contrary, I think what you’re saying smacks of the Romanist doctrine of the superadded grace (see Summa Theologica part 1 question 95 and the Sentences book 2 distinction 24 for reference).
The problem with donum superadditum is not the idea that moral perfection was a grace - it's the idea that, stripped of that grace, what remains of man's nature is morally neutral and capable of freely willing to do good or evil. This I reject. Man's nature is not morally neutral or injured by the fall - it is spiritually dead in sin.
By “simple fact”, I mean this individual fact considered in isolation from anything else. And these other things could hardly be distinguished from the fact he existed, since he could hardly exist without them. But I confess it is dubious to me to speak even of creation as a grace, because grace is unmerited favor, and it seems strange to speak of a thing not existing as being shown favor. Truly, life was a gift, but I am hesitant to call it grace, though if a man does I have no objection. However, man’s continuing existence after his initial creation was strictly not gracious in any sense. Upon making man God entered into covenant with him (and I do not see how God would ever have done otherwise with His own image), the terms of which promised to him eternal life on condition of perpetual obedience. As long as Adam obeyed he would live, not on the basis of grace, but of merit; Adam then had life because he deserved to live, and for God to take it away from him for any reason other than the failure of the covenant would be for Him to cruelly and unjustly break the covenant Himself, which He absolutely could not do.
I'm not just calling existence gracious - I'm calling God’s providence by which he sustains all of creation gracious. Do we not also use the word grace to describe the providential blessings God sends upon the just and the unjust and all creatures? Does providence not also include the way creation is ordered for the benefit of creatures?

I can't agree that any creation deserves or merits anything from the creator. He is the potter and is not only free but is just in forming pots for glorification or destruction. He does covenantally promise his creations eternal life on the condition of perpetual obedience, but not because the creations deserve or merit such a covenant or eternal life. Even the covenant of works is gracious in this way.

If He removed a providential blessing that fended Adam from temptation, would that cruelly and unjustly violate the covenant of works? Again, I propose that the fall/lapse was the withdrawal of the grace that preserved Adam’s perfection. Adam’s sinful response to temptation was still the breach of the covenant that destroyed his perfection.
 
Undoubtedly some Arminian notions still influence me in unknowing ways. How can we though treat the Covenant of Works as if its the Covenant of Grace? Adam broke the agreement and disobeyed God. I do not see anywhere in that Covenant where God was giving him grace like we see in the Covenant of Grace, then removed it from him so he would sin. Adam chose earthly things because although his nature was not evil and had chosen to obey God, when presented with an earthly temptation he chose it according to his nature. Of course I believe all this is my own speculation, since it is not explicitly stated in scripture.
this recent string got into these questions: puritanboard.com/threads/what-do-covenant-of-works-deniers-actually-deny.118903/post-1424820
 
Westminster Confession of Faith (WCF) Chapter 3 – Of God’s Eternal Decree
  1. God from all eternity did, by the most wise and holy counsel of His own will, freely, and unchangeably ordain whatsoever comes to pass:a yet so, as thereby neither is God the author of sin,b nor is violence offered to the will of the creatures, nor is the liberty or contingency of second causes taken away, but rather established.c
    aEph 1:11; Rom 11:33; Heb 6:17; Rom 9:15,18. bJames 1:13,17; 1 John 1:5. cActs 2:23; Matt 17:12; Acts 4:27-28; John 19:11; Prov 16:33.
  2. Although God knows whatsoever may or can come to pass upon all supposed conditions,d yet hath He not decreed anything because He foresaw it as future, or as that which would come to pass upon such conditions.e
    dActs 15:18; 1 Sam 23:11-12; Matt 11:21,23. eRom 9:11,13,16,18.
  3. By the decree of God, for the manifestation of His glory, some men and angelsf are predestinated unto everlasting life, and others foreordained to everlasting death.g
    f1 Tim 5:21; Matt 25:41. gRom 9:22-23; Eph 1:5-6; Prov 16:4.
  4. These angels and men, thus predestinated and foreordained, are particularly and unchangeably designed, and their number is so certain and definite, that it cannot be either increased or diminished.h
    h2 Tim 2:19; John 13:18.
  5. Those of mankind that are predestinated unto life, God, before the foundation of the world was laid, according to His eternal and immutable purpose, and the secret counsel and good pleasure of His will, hath chosen, in Christ, unto everlasting glory,i out of His mere free grace and love, without any foresight of faith or good works, or perseverance in either of them, or any other thing in the creature, as conditions, or causes moving Him thereunto:k and all to the praise of His glorious grace.la
    iEph 1:4,9,11; Rom 8:30; 2 Tim 1:9; 1 Thess 5:9. kRom 9:11,13,16; Eph 1:4,9. lEph 1:6,12.
  6. As God hath appointed the elect unto glory, so hath He, by the eternal and most free purpose of His will, foreordained all the means thereunto.m Wherefore they who are elected, being fallen in Adam, are redeemed by Christ,n are effectually called unto faith in Christ by His Spirit working in due season, are justified, adopted, sanctified,o and kept by His power through faith unto salvation.p Neither are any other redeemed by Christ, effectually called, justified, adopted, sanctified, and saved, but the elect only.q
    m1 Pet 1:2; Eph 1:4-5; Eph 2:10; 2 Thess 2:13. n1 Thess 5:9,10; Tit 2:14. oRom 8:30; Eph 1:5; 2 Thess 2:13. p1 Pet 1:5; qJohn 17:9; Rom 8:28-39; John 6:64-65; John 10:26; John 8:47; 1 John 2:19.
  7. The rest of mankind God was pleased, according to the unsearchable counsel of His own will, whereby He extendeth or withholdeth mercy, as He pleaseth, for the glory of His sovereign power over His creatures, to pass by; and to ordain them to dishonour and wrath, for their sin, to the praise of His glorious justice.r
    rMatt 11:25-26; Rom 9:17-18,21-22; 2 Tim 2:19-20; Jude 4; 1 Pet 2:8.
  8. The doctrine of this high mystery of predestination is to be handled with special prudence and care,s that men attending the will of God revealed in His Word, and yielding obedience thereunto, may, from the certainty of their effectual vocation, be assured of their eternal election.t So shall this doctrine afford matter of praise, reverence, and admiration of God,u and of humility, diligence, and abundant consolation to all that sincerely obey the gospel.w
    sRom 9:20; Rom 11:33; Deut 29:29. t2 Pet 1:10. uEph 1:6; Rom 11:33. wRom 11:5-6,20; 2 Pet 1:10; Rom 8:33; Luke 10:20
WCF Chapter 5 – Of Providence
  1. God the great Creator of all things doth uphold,a direct, dispose, and govern all creatures, actions, and things,b from the greatest even to the least,c by His most wise and holy providence,d according to His infallible foreknowledge,e and the free and immutable counsel of His own will,f to the praise of the glory of His wisdom, power, justice, goodness, and mercy.g
    aHeb 1:3. bDan 4:34-35; Ps 135:6; Acts 17:25-26,28; Job 38-41. cMatt 10:29-31. dProv 15:3; Ps 104:24; Ps 145:17. eActs 15:18; Ps 94:8-11. fEph 1:11; Ps 33:10-11. gIsa 63:14; Eph 3:10; Rom 9:17; Gen 45:7; Ps 145:7.
  2. Although, in relation to the foreknowledge and decree of God, the first Cause, all things come to pass immutably, and infallibly:h yet, by the same providence, He ordereth them to fall out, according to the nature of second causes, either necessarily, freely, or contingently.i
    hActs 2:23. iGen 8:22; Jer 31:35; Exod 21:13 with Deut 19:5; 1 Kings 22:28,34; Isa 10:6-7.
  3. God in his ordinary providence maketh use of means,k yet is free to work without,l above,m and against them, at His pleasure.n
    kActs 27:31,44; Isa 55:10-11; Hos 2:21-22. lHos 1:7; Matt 4:4; Job 34:20. mRom 4:19-21. n2 Kings 6:6; Dan 3:27.
  4. The almighty power, unsearchable wisdom, and infinite goodness of God so far manifest themselves in His providence, that it extendeth itself even to the first fall, and all other sins of angels and men;o and that not by a bare permission,p but such as hath joined with it a most wise and powerful bounding,q and otherwise ordering and governing of them, in a manifold dispensation, to His own holy ends;r yet so, as the sinfulness thereof proceedeth only from the creature, and not from God, who, being most holy and righteous, neither is, nor can be, the author or approver of sin.s
    oRom 11:32-34; 2 Sam 24:1 with 1 Chron 21:1; 1 Kings 22:22-23; 1 Chron 10:4,13-14; 2 Sam 16:10; Acts 2:23; Acts 4:27-28. pActs 14:16. qPs 76:10; 2 Kings 19:28. rGen 50:20; Isa 10:6-7,12. sJames 1:13-14,17; 1 John 2:16; Ps 50:21.
  5. The most wise, righteous, and gracious God doth oftentimes leave for a season His own children to manifold temptations, and the corruption of their own hearts, to chastise them for their former sins, or to discover unto them the hidden strength of corruption, and deceitfulness of their hearts, that they may be humbled;t and, to raise them to a more close and constant dependence for their support upon Himself, and to make them more watchful against all future occasions of sin, and for sundry other just and holy ends.u
    t2 Chron 32:25-26,31; 2 Sam 24:1. u2 Cor 12:7-9; Ps 73; Ps 77:1-12; Mark 14:66-72 with John 21:15-17.
  6. As for those wicked and ungodly men whom God, as a righteous Judge, for former sins doth blind and harden,w from them He not only withholdeth His grace, whereby they might have been enlightened in their understandings, and wrought upon in their hearts;x but sometimes also withdraweth the gifts which they had,y and exposeth them to such objects as their corruption makes occasions of sin;z and, withal, gives them over to their own lusts, the temptations of the world, and the power of Satan:a whereby it comes to pass that they harden themselves, even under those means which God useth for the softening of others.b
    wRom 1:24,26,28; Rom 11:7-8. xDeut 29:4. yMatt 13:12; Matt 25:29. zDeut 2:30; 2 Kings 8:12-13. aPs 81:11-12; 2 Thess 2:10-12. bExod 7:3 with Exod 8:15,32; 2 Cor 2:15-16; Isa 8:14; 1 Pet 2:7-8; Isa 6:9-10 with Acts 28:26-27.
  7. As the providence of God doth in general reach to all creatures, so after a most special manner it taketh care of His Church, and disposeth all things to the good thereof.c
    c1 Tim 4:10; Amos 9:8-9; Rom 8:28; Isa 43:3-5,14.
WCF Chapter 6 – Of the Fall of Man, of Sin, and of the Punishment thereof
  1. Our first parents, being seduced by the subtilty and temptation of Satan, sinned in eating the forbidden fruit.a This their sin God was pleased, according to His wise and holy counsel, to permit, having purposed to order it to His own glory.b
    Gen 3:13; 2 Cor 11:3. bRom 11:32.
  2. By this sin they fell from their original righteousness and communion with God,c and so became dead in sin,d and wholly defiled in all the faculties and parts of soul and body.e
    cGen 3:6-8; Eccl 7:29; Rom 3:23. dGen 2:17; Eph 2:1. eTit 1:15; Gen 6:5; Jer 17:9; Rom 3:10-18.
  3. They being the root of all mankind, the guilt of this sin was imputed,f and the same death in sin and corrupted nature conveyed, to all their posterity descending from them by ordinary generation.g
    fGen 1:27,28 and Gen 2:16-17 and Acts 17:26 with Rom 5:12,15-19 and 1 Cor 15:21-22,49. gPs 51:5; Gen 5:3; Job 14:4; Job 15:14.
  4. From this original corruption, whereby we are utterly indisposed, disabled, and made opposite to all good,h and wholly inclined to all evil,i do proceed all actual transgressions.k
    hRom 5:6; Rom 8:7; Rom 7:18; Col 1:21. iGen 6:5; Gen 8:21; Rom 3:10-12. kJames 1:14-15; Eph 2:2-3; Matt 15:19.
  5. This corruption of nature, during this life, doth remain in those that are regenerated;l and although it be, through Christ, pardoned and mortified, yet both itself and all the motions thereof are truly and properly sin.m
    l1 John 1:8,10; Rom 7:14,17-18,23; James 3:2; Prov 20:9; Eccl 7:20. mRom 7:5,7-8,25; Gal 5:17.
  6. Every sin, both original and actual, being a transgression of the righteous law of God, and contrary thereunto,n doth, in its own nature, bring guilt upon the sinner;o whereby he is bound over to the wrath of God,p and curse of the law,q and so made subject to death,r with all miseries spiritual,s temporal,t and eternal.u
    n1 John 3:4. oRom 2:15; Rom 3:9,19. pEph 2:3. qGal 3:10. rRom 6:23. sEph 4:18. tRom 8:20; Lam 3:39. uMatt 25:41; 2 Thess 1:9.
WCF Chapter 9 – Of Free Will
  1. God hath endued the will of man with that natural liberty, that it is neither forced, nor by any absolute necessity of nature determined to good or evil.a
    aMatt 17:12; James 1:14; Deut 30:19.
  2. Man, in his state of innocency, had freedom and power to will and to do that which was good, and well pleasing to God;b but yet mutably, so that he might fall from it.c
    bEccl 7:29; Gen 1:26. cGen 2:16-17; Gen 3:6.
  3. Man, by his fall into a state of sin, hath wholly lost all ability of will to any spiritual good accompanying salvation:d so as, a natural man, being altogether averse from that good,e and dead in sin,f is not able, by his own strength, to convert himself, or to prepare himself thereunto.g
    dRom 5:6; Rom8:7; John 15:5. eRom 3:10,12. fEph 2:1,5; Col 2:13. gJohn 6:44,65; Eph 2:2-5; 1 Cor 2:14; Tit 3:3-5.
  4. When God converts a sinner, and translates him into the state of grace, He freeth him from his natural bondage under sin;h and, by His grace alone, enables him freely to will and to do that which is spiritually good;i yet so, as that by reason of his remaining corruption, he doth not perfectly, nor only, will that which is good, but doth also will that which is evil.k
    hCol 1:13; John 8:34,36. iPhil 2:13; Rom 6:18,22. kGal 5:17; Rom 7:15,18-19,21,23.
  5. The will of man is made perfectly and immutably free to good alone, in the state of glory only.l
    lEph 4:13; Heb 12:23; 1 John 3:2; Jude 24.
 
I think there are several distinctions we need to preserve here. Adam was not self-sufficient, but neither was he created with a deficient nature that needed a supernatural corrective before he could obey. He possessed original righteousness and a real ability to render the obedience God required. That ability belonged to his created nature, although its exercise was never independent of God.

Van Mastricht and the Puritans help us distinguish three things: Adam’s original moral ability, his continuing dependence upon God, and the further gift of confirmation in righteousness. Confusing these produces problems on both sides of this discussion.

the lapse preceded and allowed the sin

Evan, I appreciate your subsequent clarification that you are distinguishing exposure to temptation from becoming sinful. That matters, and I would not charge you with teaching that Adam was already corrupt before his first sin. Nevertheless, calling the removal of protection from temptation Adam’s lapse confuses two different things.

God’s permitting a trial is not itself the creature’s fall. Adam’s fall was his sinful departure from God, not simply his being confronted with an opportunity to disobey. Nor did God first deprive him of the righteousness or ability necessary to resist that temptation.

Van Mastricht addresses precisely this question:

For he had the strength by which he was able, and by which he had stood in actuality all the way to the point of the fall, and this strength was by no means withdrawn from him before the beginning of sin.

That is Theoretical-Practical Theology, volume 3, book 4, chapter 1, §XX. Adam did not merely possess sufficient ability at some earlier point. He still possessed it when he first sinned.

William Ames makes the same essential point. In chapter 14 of A Puritan Theology, under “Grace and Merit,” Beeke and Jones explain that Ames understood Adam to have persisted in the garden by grace, but expressly denied that this grace was withdrawn before his transgression:

grace was not taken from him before he had sinned.

Their reference is Ames, The Marrow of Sacred Divinity, p. 50. Notice that Ames neither denies divine assistance nor makes its prior withdrawal the explanation for Adam’s sin.

We should also distinguish Adam’s first inward transgression from the subsequent outward act of eating. Van Mastricht recognizes sinful inward movements before the outward act was completed. His point is that Adam was not first deprived of necessary assistance and then made sinful as a consequence. The departure from uprightness began in his own sinful turning, not in a prior corruption imposed upon him. See book 4, chapter 1, §§VI–VII.

What, then, do we mean by Adam’s natural ability?

We mean more than the bare possession of understanding and will. Fallen people still have those faculties. Adam possessed them in moral uprightness, with his understanding, will, and affections rightly ordered toward God.

In A Puritan Theology, chapter 14, under “The Moral Law and Imago Dei,” Beeke and Jones quote John Ball’s description of the divine image as:

divine qualities breathed from the whole Trinity…enabling and fitting him to obey the will of God entirely, willingly, [and] exactly.

Their discussion of Thomas Goodwin makes the same point. Adam’s faculties were inclined toward knowing, serving, and loving God. His knowledge and holiness fitted him to recognize God as his supreme good. Original righteousness was not merely an absence of sinful acts on Adam’s record. It was a positive moral endowment.

Van Mastricht likewise says that original righteousness was:

natural to man, insofar as it was owed to his integral nature in such a way that it could not be morally whole without it.

See volume 3, book 3, chapter 9, §XLIV. This does not make righteousness something Adam supplied for himself. God created him righteous. It means that righteousness belonged to the integrity of the nature God created, rather than being a corrective superadded to an inherently disordered nature.

Consequently, Adam’s ability was not merely the ability to remain innocent so long as nothing tempted him. He had the moral equipment necessary to obey when obedience was tested. His failure does not establish that God had failed to equip him.

Ball and Goodwin also distinguish Adam’s faith in his Creator from the saving faith by which fallen sinners receive Christ. Their discussion appears under “Adam’s Faith” in the same chapter. Adam did not require regeneration before he could believe God’s word. He already possessed the upright nature which fallen people have lost.

The ability to obey, however, is not the same thing as confirmed perseverance.

Van Mastricht answers the allegation that God withdrew grace before Adam sinned:

We deny that this was done before sin was committed, although we do not deny that he refused to give a second, confirming grace, which was not owed.

That is volume 3, book 4, chapter 1, §XIX. In the same section, he distinguishes sufficient assistance, by which Adam could have avoided sin, from the further assistance which would have secured his actually avoiding it.

Not bestowing confirming grace is not the same thing as withdrawing Adam’s existing ability to obey.

Beeke and Jones state the corresponding Puritan distinction at the beginning of “The Fall” in chapter 14:

Whatever graces Adam received from God, he did not receive the grace of perseverance in the covenant of works.

Their discussion of Samuel Rutherford distinguishes Adam’s condition under the covenant of works from the perseverance secured in the covenant of grace. Adam was able not to sin, but he was not immutably confirmed in goodness.

That is the relevant distinction. Mutability is not corruption. The absence of confirmation is not the absence of sufficient ability. A creature can be genuinely upright without possessing an infallible guarantee that he will remain upright.

This also means that Adam’s failure cannot be explained simply by his being under the covenant of works. That covenant required obedience from someone who possessed the ability to render it. It did not require an already-disabled man to accomplish what his original constitution made impossible. His failure was a culpable transgression, not the discovery of a defect in God’s workmanship.

Nor does any of this remove the fall from God’s decree. In the same section, Beeke and Jones discuss Patrick Gillespie’s distinction between divine determination and compulsion. The certainty of the event under God’s decree did not turn Adam into an unwilling instrument. Van Mastricht likewise distinguishes the certainty of the fall from a necessity arising from Adam’s nature. God ordained a voluntary transgression, not an involuntary movement masquerading as a choice. See Van Mastricht, book 4, chapter 1, §§XIX–XX.

Within time, Adam acted alone.

I would qualify this statement as well. Adam was the genuine creaturely agent of his obedience, but divine providence does not stop at keeping the creature in existence. God sustains and governs the creature’s actions as well.

In chapter 10 of A Puritan Theology, “The Puritans on Providence,” Beeke and Jones quote Edward Corbet:

We cannot utter one word, think one thought, turn our eye, or move a finger, without the concurrence of his power who gives life and breath, and all things.

Concurrence means that God’s operation and the creature’s operation are not competing explanations. Adam really acted, and his action really depended upon God. The Creator’s causality does not displace the creature’s causality.

Van Mastricht is equally explicit. In his discussion of original righteousness, he says that its actual exercise required:

another kind of second grace, one whereby that first grace would be excited, and would pass from potency into act, and be conserved

See volume 3, book 3, chapter 9, §XXXIV. We cannot fairly enlist him for the proposition that Adam’s righteous activity required no divine assistance that could be called grace. He expressly uses that terminology.

Anthony Burgess likewise insists that Adam could not persevere without God’s help. Beeke and Jones explain that Burgess acknowledged disagreement about whether this assistance should properly be called grace, but did not deny the assistance itself. See chapter 14, “Grace and Merit.”

The correction, therefore, is not that every reference to grace before the fall is mistaken. The Puritans used the word in different senses. God’s generosity in creating Adam, His assistance to an upright creature, His unowed confirmation, and His saving mercy toward a guilty sinner must be distinguished.

Adam’s original righteousness was natural to him as created; his dependence upon God was continuous; and his perseverance was not infallibly secured. All three statements belong together.

because he deserved to live

There is an important truth here, provided we are speaking of the right established by God’s covenant promise. God would certainly be faithful to His promise. But that must not become a claim that Adam’s obedience possessed an intrinsic worth which put God in his debt independently of the covenant.

In chapter 14, Beeke and Jones explain how Francis Roberts distinguished God’s right to command obedience from His free decision to promise a reward. God could have required the duty without promising that reward. John Owen likewise understood the promised reward to exceed the worth of the obedience considered in itself.

Van Mastricht makes the corresponding point in volume 3, book 3, chapter 12, §XXXII. God freely condescended to bind Himself by His promise. The obligation to fulfill that promise rests upon God’s faithfulness, not upon an antecedent right possessed by the creature.

We should therefore distinguish the generosity of establishing the covenant from the works condition within it. Recognizing the former does not turn the covenant of works into the covenant of grace. Conversely, affirming the works condition does not require denying God’s generosity.

Van Mastricht gives a particularly useful comparison in volume 4, book 5, chapter 1, §XXVI:

The first presupposed perseverance as a condition, the second confers the same as a benefit.

That is a much more precise contrast than simply saying that one covenant involved dependence upon God and the other did not.

the intra-trinitarian covenant

The eternal agreement concerning redemption should also be distinguished from God’s covenantal dealings with sinners in time. Chapter 15 of A Puritan Theology explains both the distinction and the historical variation in terminology. Some divines distinguished the covenant of redemption from the covenant of grace; others spoke of eternal and temporal aspects of the covenant of grace.

Van Mastricht himself uses the latter terminology in volume 4, book 5, chapter 1. The issue is therefore not whether someone may use “covenant of grace” for the eternal transaction, but whether the definition also accounts for God’s covenant with sinners in Christ.

Finally, the original post’s comparison between Adam and Christ needs correction at these words:

or disobey

Christ is not merely another created human person placed under probation. He is the eternal Son who assumed a true human nature. His obedience was genuinely human and voluntary, but the person obeying was the divine Son.

Chapter 21 of A Puritan Theology, “Puritan Christology,” emphasizes that the Son assumed human nature, not a separately existing human person. It also explains how Goodwin and Owen upheld the reality of Christ’s human obedience and His dependence upon the Holy Spirit.

Van Mastricht expressly denies that Christ could sin, because that would mean that the God-man could become a sinner. See volume 4, book 5, chapter 10, §XXV. His inability to sin does not make His obedience involuntary, His humanity unreal, or His temptations fictitious.

The central point throughout is this: Adam fell from a genuinely upright nature through his own willing transgression. He did not first lose the ability to obey and then sin because that ability had been removed. At the same time, his created ability never made him independent of God.

The Puritan answer is not autonomous nature on one side or a morally deficient creature maintained by a corrective grace on the other. It is an upright but mutable creature, fully dependent upon his Creator, whose obedience was required but whose perseverance was not secured as it is for those united to Christ.
 
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