Cornelius Van Halen
Puritan Board Freshman
I'd love it if you'd interact with my previous post (#81)!Indeed. None of the Gospels mention wine, even in the KJV, but all mention "fruit of the vine." Also, the 1 Cor. verse does not directly mention wine by name either.
My point in this, and trying to sift through these things, is to find some sort of necessity for fermentation to be present for the symbolism of blood shed to be upheld. With verses like Isaiah 63:2-4, which depicts grapes being crushed in the wine press, I dont see why fermentation must add to the symbolism of blood Jesus is trying to get across with the denoting of "fruit of the vine"? I agree, it could very well have been fermented wine at the Last Supper, and probably was. But my question is, is fermented wine necessitated when Jesus doesnt mention wine, but fruit of the vine? We all know the preserving of grape juice didnt happen until a few hundred years ago. But, with that technology, how is the sacrament diminished unless fermentation adds something to it? I just have yet to see a good argument fermentation adds something to what Jesus was trying to convey (as context shows) at the Supper.
I'd also suggest that understanding that the phrase "fruit of the vine" has a referent to wine. I believe you can find this present in both Josephus Antiquities and Philo On Drunkenness.
Additionally, as I alluded to above, the celebration of the Passover at the time of Jesus almost certainly had wine, which is the referent to the cup.
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Technological advances don't mean that we should modify the sign, especially when the sign is full of meaning (see above!)