Unprofitable Servant
Puritan Board Freshman
This is a fairly minor issue, but I would like some help if someone knows anything about this.
During the process of Scripture memorization, I have been working on starting to memorize Ephesians. I have chosen to use the KJV. In verse 1:4, the end reads, "that we should be holy and without blame before him in love:". The "in love" seems to be a state in which we are before Him, or perhaps a state in which He holds us before Him.
This morning, I read this verse in the ESV (on E-Sword, I don't have a paper copy) and it is different, saying "before him. In love" then goes on to verse 5: "he predestined us...".
It seems that in the KJV, "in love" is part of being before Him "holy and without blame", while in the ESV, love seems to be the motivation for predestination, a part the sentence which is mostly in v.5.
Can someone help me here? I don't know Greek, or anything about how translators decide where to put punctuation. I do know that the verse breaks are man's addition, and that's not my issue. It seems here that the sentence ending is pretty important. I almost wish I had never opened another version- perhaps someone can help me understand instead of being frustrated?
During the process of Scripture memorization, I have been working on starting to memorize Ephesians. I have chosen to use the KJV. In verse 1:4, the end reads, "that we should be holy and without blame before him in love:". The "in love" seems to be a state in which we are before Him, or perhaps a state in which He holds us before Him.
This morning, I read this verse in the ESV (on E-Sword, I don't have a paper copy) and it is different, saying "before him. In love" then goes on to verse 5: "he predestined us...".
It seems that in the KJV, "in love" is part of being before Him "holy and without blame", while in the ESV, love seems to be the motivation for predestination, a part the sentence which is mostly in v.5.
Can someone help me here? I don't know Greek, or anything about how translators decide where to put punctuation. I do know that the verse breaks are man's addition, and that's not my issue. It seems here that the sentence ending is pretty important. I almost wish I had never opened another version- perhaps someone can help me understand instead of being frustrated?
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