How is this "seeing" to be understood?

[JennyG]

- since we are told no-one can see God, and live. Did they see Christ?

Exodus 24 v 9-11
Then went up Moses, and Aaron, Nadab, and Abihu, and seventy of the elders of Israel;
And they saw the God of Israel: and there was under his feet as it were a paved work of a sapphire stone, and as it were the body of heaven in his clearness.
And upon the nobles of Israel he laid not his hand: also they saw God, and did eat and drink......

 

[Contra_Mundum]

A Christophany seems most reasonable explanation.

Compare with Ezekiel's and John's visions, and other sights.

I do not believe there is any other satisfactory explanation, when "No one has seen God at any time" (1Jn.4:!2), and plainly people have seen some manifestation: "We shall surely die, for we have seen God" (Jdg.6:22), or Gen.32:30, "And Jacob called the name of the place Peniel: for I have seen God face to face, and my life is preserved."

When the Lord is manifested, it is not according to his pure divine essence, but according to some accommodated revelation (whether angelic, bodily, as a dove, or in a burning bush, etc.). And that manifestation has always been in the Second Person.

 

[JennyG]

Thank you, I thought that must be the answer.

ps thank you also to whoever corrected the spelling mistake in the title. I tried to edit it, but for some reason couldn't!