I need help with this verse

[OPC'n]

Romans 5:13 "for sin indeed was in the world before the law was given, but sin is not counted where there is no law."

Does this verse really mean that sin wasn't recognized by man as sin because there was no law to help them recognize it and then when the law came it pronounced or showed mankind how sinful they really were? Really, I just need help understanding it.

 

[Hamalas]

Here's what Calvin had to say on the topic:

Without the law reproving us, we in a manner sleep in our sins; and though we are not ignorant that we do evil, we yet suppress as much as we can the knowledge of evil offered to us, at least we obliterate it by quickly forgetting it. While the law reproves and chides us, it awakens us as it were by its stimulating power, that we may return to the consideration of God’s judgment. The Apostle then intimates that men continue in their perverseness when not roused by the law, and that when the difference between good and evil is laid aside, they securely and joyfully indulge themselves, as if there was no judgment to come.

 

[ServantofGod]

Matthew Henry:

he(Paul) shows that sin did not commence with the law of Moses, but was in the world until, or before, that law; therefore that law of Moses is not the only rule of life, for there was a rule, and that rule was transgressed, before the law was given. It likewise intimates that we cannot be justified by our obedience to the law of Moses, any more than we were condemned by and for our disobedience to it. Sin was in the world before the law; witness Cain's murder, the apostasy of the old world, the wickedness of Sodom. His inference hence is, Therefore there was a law; for sin is not imputed where there is no law. Original sin is a want of conformity to, and actual sin is a transgression of, the law of God: therefore all were under some law. His proof of it is, Death reigned from Adam to Moses, Rom_5:14. It is certain that death could not have reigned if sin had not set up the throne for him. This proves that sin was in the world before the law, and original sin, for death reigned over those that had not sinned any actual sin, that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, never sinned in their own persons as Adam did - which is to be understood of infants, that were never guilty of actual sin, and yet died, because Adam's sin was imputed to them. This reign of death seems especially to refer to those violent and extraordinary judgments which were long before Moses, as the deluge and the destruction of Sodom, which involved infants. It is a great proof of original sin that little children, who were never guilty of any actual transgression, are yet liable to very terrible diseases, casualties, and deaths, which could by no means be reconciled with the justice and righteousness of God if they were not chargeable with guilt.

 

[TimV]

My understanding, admittedly crude, is that something is sin just because God says it is.

So, God could be perfectly good with Abraham marrying his half sister. And God could be perfectly good with telling Moses that "From now one, nobody can marry his half sister". And it would be good, since God said it was good.

So, to answer you post, Abraham did GOOD by marrying his half sister, since God said it was fine. After Moses, it would be BAD to marry your half sister, since God said it was bad.

So, sin is sin because God says it is sin. Not because of some universal standard, or natural law. Paul is saying that something is sin because God said not to do it. Not because of some intrinsic "wrongness" of a particular action.

 

[Hippo]

My understanding, admittedly crude, is that something is sin just because God says it is.

So, God could be perfectly good with Abraham marrying his half sister. And God could be perfectly good with telling Moses that "From now one, nobody can marry his half sister". And it would be good, since God said it was good.

So, to answer you post, Abraham did GOOD by marrying his half sister, since God said it was fine. After Moses, it would be BAD to marry your half sister, since God said it was bad.

So, sin is sin because God says it is sin. Not because of some universal standard, or natural law. Paul is saying that something is sin because God said not to do it. Not because of some intrinsic "wrongness" of a particular action.

One of the many reasons why God cannot sin.

 

[Jimmy the Greek]

And I would add that Paul's point in this verse is to say that even though there was no Law to point the finger at man for sinning against God, yet he died. Why? Because of Adam's sin imputed.

 

[OPC'n]

Thank you all for your impute! I knew I could count on you guys. I think Matthew Henry's point is well taken. I'm not familiar with him...I'll have to do some research on him.