Instruments and the Priesthood

[David073]

How would you respond to someone who claims that musical instruments should be incorporated into New Testament worship because in the new covenant Christians are in the spirit of the Levitical priesthood. Their proof text is 1 Peter 2:9

I’d argue that regardless of believers being a royal priesthood, musical instruments were a strictly a part of the ceremonial law. Therefore no more sacrifices, no more instruments

 

[MyCrows]

 

[NaphtaliPress]

It argues necessity. What will they do? Hand out various musical instruments at the door and everyone play some way? Most I know who are reformed and understand what arguing a warrant under the regulative principle means, argue for the circumstantial use of instruments to aid the singing. There is not a simple freedom to use if seeking a warrant/command.

 

[chuckd]

How would you respond to someone who claims that musical instruments should be incorporated into New Testament worship because in the new covenant Christians are in the spirit of the Levitical priesthood. Their proof text is 1 Peter 2:9

That text just says priesthood, not Levitical priesthood. Hebrews 7-10 shows the priesthood has changed necessitating a change in the law. (Heb. 7:12)

 

[Joshua]

I'd begin by asking:

1. "For what were the instruments used, particularly?" then
2. "Where do we find the list of approved instruments so that we know which ones -those ordained by David- may be used?"

 

[Northern Crofter]

musical instruments should be incorporated into New Testament worship because in the new covenant Christians are in the spirit of the Levitical priesthood

Musical instruments should not be incorporated into New Testament worship because in the new covenant Christians are in the spirit of the Levitical priesthood.

As Christ taught us, "But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true worshippers shall worship the Father in Spirit and Truth: for the Father requireth even such to worship him. God is a Spirit, and they that worship him, must worship him in Spirit and Truth." (John 4:23-24) He is specifically addressing worship in the the context of this passage - that neither the corrupted worship of the Samaritans nor the Levitical Temple worship will be acceptable when Christ finishes His earthly ministry: "Jesus said unto her, Woman, believe me, the hour cometh, when ye shall neither in this mountain, nor at Jerusalem worship the Father." (v.21) I find the Geneva notes on v.23 helpful here: "...he speaketh of (Truth) not as we set it against a lie, but as we take it in respect of the outward ceremonies of the Law: which did only shadow that which Christ performed indeed."

Thus Paul instructs us: "Wherefore, be ye not unwise, but understand what the will of the Lord is. And be not drunk with wine, wherein is excess: but be fulfilled with the Spirit, speaking unto yourselves in Spiritual psalms, and hymns, and songs, singing and making melody to the Lord in your hearts, giving thanks always for all things unto God even the Father, in the Name of our Lord Jesus Christ (Ephesians 5.17-20).

 

[Phil D.]

Musical instruments should not be incorporated into New Testament worship because in the new covenant Christians are in the spirit of the Levitical priesthood.

As Christ taught us, "But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true worshippers shall worship the Father in Spirit and Truth: for the Father requireth even such to worship him. God is a Spirit, and they that worship him, must worship him in Spirit and Truth." (John 4:23-24) He is specifically addressing worship in the the context of this passage - that neither the corrupted worship of the Samaritans nor the Levitical Temple worship will be acceptable when Christ finishes His earthly ministry: "Jesus said unto her, Woman, believe me, the hour cometh, when ye shall neither in this mountain, nor at Jerusalem worship the Father." (v.21) I find the Geneva notes on v.23 helpful here: "...he speaketh of (Truth) not as we set it against a lie, but as we take it in respect of the outward ceremonies of the Law: which did only shadow that which Christ performed indeed."

Thus Paul instructs us: "Wherefore, be ye not unwise, but understand what the will of the Lord is. And be not drunk with wine, wherein is excess: but be fulfilled with the Spirit, speaking unto yourselves in Spiritual psalms, and hymns, and songs, singing and making melody to the Lord in your hearts, giving thanks always for all things unto God even the Father, in the Name of our Lord Jesus Christ (Ephesians 5.17-20).

If taken to its logical conclusion it seems this argument, as framed, could be used against any corporate singing as well.

Also, do you think "speaking to yourselves in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs" in Eph. 5:19 KJV is conveying a different idea than "teaching and admonishing one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs" in Col. 3:16 KJV ? The same Greek plural pronoun ἑαυτοὺς is used in both verses, and indicates reciprocity - i.e "to one another."

 

[Northern Crofter]

If taken to its logical conclusion it seems this argument, as framed, could be used against any corporate singing as well.

Logic aside, Ephesians 5.19 goes on to say "...singing [Greek = ᾄδοντες which to my knowledge can only mean "to sing"] and making melody to the Lord in your [the Greek is plural and the context indicates God's people are gathered together] hearts...." Consider also Hebrews 2:12 which seems to intimate that singing praises to God in the midst of the congregation/Church is not limited to the previous dispensation of grace.

Also, do you think "speaking to yourselves in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs" in Eph. 5:19 KJV is conveying a different idea than "teaching and admonishing one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs" in Col. 3:16 KJV ? The same Greek plural pronoun ἑαυτοὺς is used in both verses, and indicates reciprocity - i.e "to one another."

I'm not exactly sure what you mean in asking if the passages are conveying different ideas. As you've stated, the same Greek plural pronoun ἑαυτοὺς is used in both passages, both are within the context of God's people gathered together, both emphasize the "in your hearts" aspect of such fellowship, both use the word ᾄδοντες - it would seem to me both exhortations are intended to convey the same idea of what is required when God's people assemble.

I know it is disputed whether or not these passages are directly addressing public worship, but consider, for example, in what context all the activities in Col.3.13-16 could take place: "Forbearing one another, and forgiving one another, if any man have a quarrel to another: even as Christ forgave, even so do ye. And above all these things put on love, which is the bond of perfectness. And let the peace of God rule in your hearts, to the which ye are called in one body, and be ye thankful: Let the word of Christ dwell in you plenteously in all wisdom, teaching and admonishing your own selves, in spiritual psalms, and hymns, and songs, singing with a grace in your hearts to the Lord." Other than living in a commune - which may have been the reality in the opening of Acts, but not seemingly in the congregations/Churches established by Paul such as in Colossae - I cannot think of another place where all of this can regularly happen outside of the assembly of the Church.

 

[Phil D.]

Logic aside, Ephesians 5.19 goes on to say "...singing [Greek = ᾄδοντες which to my knowledge can only mean "to sing"] and making melody to the Lord in your [the Greek is plural and the context indicates God's people are gathered together] hearts...." Consider also Hebrews 2:12 which seems to intimate that singing praises to God in the midst of the congregation/Church is not limited to the previous dispensation of grace.

I'm not exactly sure what you mean in asking if the passages are conveying different ideas. As you've stated, the same Greek plural pronoun ἑαυτοὺς is used in both passages, both are within the context of God's people gathered together, both emphasize the "in your hearts" aspect of such fellowship, both use the word ᾄδοντες - it would seem to me both exhortations are intended to convey the same idea of what is required when God's people assemble.

I know it is disputed whether or not these passages are directly addressing public worship, but consider, for example, in what context all the activities in Col.3.13-16 could take place: "Forbearing one another, and forgiving one another, if any man have a quarrel to another: even as Christ forgave, even so do ye. And above all these things put on love, which is the bond of perfectness. And let the peace of God rule in your hearts, to the which ye are called in one body, and be ye thankful: Let the word of Christ dwell in you plenteously in all wisdom, teaching and admonishing your own selves, in spiritual psalms, and hymns, and songs, singing with a grace in your hearts to the Lord." Other than living in a commune - which may have been the reality in the opening of Acts, but not seemingly in the congregations/Churches established by Paul such as in Colossae - I cannot think of another place where all of this can regularly happen outside of the assembly of the Church.

None of this makes sense to me in terms of proving instruments aren't to be used in public worship. Simply because singing is addressed in these passages does not reasonably presume that instruments are excluded. That is an inductive fallacy. I'm not really wanting to extend debate here, I just think it is a poor argument.

 

[Northern Crofter]

None of this makes sense to me in terms of proving instruments aren't to be used in public worship.

I probably wasn't very clear. I was trying to show how one action (singing) is justified via explicit warrant in Scripture which is what the other ("that musical instruments should be incorporated into New Testament worship") lacks.

1. In the present dispensation of grace we have a commandment to sing when assembled.
2. We have no such commandment for using instruments in the current dispensation.

I don't see that as an inductive fallacy. I'm not saying 2 is dependent on 1. Both are in the same context of Christian communion and I would argue are subject to the RPW, but both can be arrived at independently.

 

[Afterthought]

Peter is referencing the Old Testament. In that time, those words were applied to the Israelite congregation as a whole. Exodus 19; mostly reiterated in Deuteronomy 14:2.

5 Now therefore, if ye will obey my voice indeed, and keep my covenant, then ye shall be a peculiar treasure unto me above all people: for all the earth is mine:

6 And ye shall be unto me a kingdom of priests, and an holy nation. These are the words which thou shalt speak unto the children of Israel.

...And yet only some were to offer sacrifices and incense and later on only some of that some (not all priests were to do such) were to sing and play instruments at particular times. What the people were had no bearing on what specific actions they were commanded and authorized to do in worship. The logic of the argument based on this verse does not follow.


Furthermore, Peter tells us what we are to do as priests: we offer up spiritual sacrifices unto God, such as proclaiming his praise. Musical instruments, incense, animal sacrifices, eating shewbread, lighting candlesticks, cleaning the tabernacle and temple, washing hands and feet with water....none of these are said to be what we are to do as priests and are indeed contrasted since "spiritual" is intended to qualify "sacrifice" to clarify that what we do now is different from what the order of priests did back then (though if applied to the people generally as in Exodus 19, they and the whole people were to do this too). The earthly crust has fallen away leaving just the spiritual service.


Having said all that, if one took time to systematically understand the difference between the Old Testament and New Testament system of worship, the notion of "spiritual sacrifice" would by itself exclude instruments as being part of that service of "spiritual sacrifice." Instruments and things made of matter or of this earth ("lifeless things," as instruments are said to be; you can see the contrast in Peter somewhat too, where we are said to be "lively stones" to build up a "spiritual house," i.e., "spiritual" means to include living things, not dead matter) do not fall under "spiritual" in the New Testament and is indeed contrasted with it and excluded from it.

 

[Andres]

How would you respond to someone who claims that musical instruments should be incorporated into New Testament worship because in the new covenant Christians are in the spirit of the Levitical priesthood. Their proof text is 1 Peter 2:9

I’d argue that regardless of believers being a royal priesthood, musical instruments were a strictly a part of the ceremonial law. Therefore no more sacrifices, no more instruments

Are these same people also advocates of offering sacrifices upon an altar in modern public worship because that would be the expected line of consistency?

 

[Grant Van Leuven]

Are these same people also advocates of offering sacrifices upon an altar in modern public worship because that would be the expected line of consistency?

Exactly. I was going to say something similar: would they argue we still need to be using incense? And ought the pastors to still wear priestly vestments (or perhaps all in this case of argument)? Here's our membership class on acapella worship in the NT: https://www.sermonaudio.com/sermoninfo.asp?SID=5522454562870. Also, here's a video I helped produce during my ministry internship that Dr. Jeffrey Stivason of Grace RPCNA in Gibsonia, PA, presented (and since is NT Professor at RPTS):

(it also covers exclusive psalmody, and is only about 10 minutes with some helpful temple--and thus tabernacle--illustrations.)