rickclayfan
Puritan Board Freshman
Is the "full effect/work" of patience (Jas. 1:4) discussed in v. 5? I do not own any commentaries on James other than Manton. His view is that vv. 5-8 is a parenthesis. It would seem, however, likely that the "full work" of patience (that which it leads to/flows into) is the humble begging of God to supply our deficiency of wisdom in managing the afflictions.
Are these thoughts exegetically correct or plausible? Or what is the standard interpretation?
Are these thoughts exegetically correct or plausible? Or what is the standard interpretation?
