John 5:4

What to do with John 5:4 (and other versus missing from the “best” manuscripts)


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The Calvinistic Methodist

Puritan Board Freshman
John 5:4 is never going to be the backbone of any theology. However, recent scholarship has questioned its authenticity. On one hand we have had a better chunk of Christian history regarding it as the written word of God. However, recent scholarship has been so blessed with the Dead Sea scrolls ect. I look at my brothers in the KJV only crowd clinging to those verses. They say the Spirit is faithful to His written word and was pleased to transmit these verses.
So here is the question(s):

1) How should we think of recent scholarship with textual criticism? As a blessing to the faithfulness to His word? Maybe like a textual reformation? Or conversely, should we think of it as scholarship standing over the word of God and raising intellect over what the Lord was pleased to bless?

2) How do we work through further developments? I am a seminary student at a liberal seminary. I came to the Reformed understanding through my own personal Bible studies. I see the gross abuse of scripture done in the name of scholarship and at has driven me to antiquity! I have become cynical of recent scholarship (I really have not embraced many modern scholars). When everyone around me is transgressing scripture in the name of scholarship you can see why I would be alarmed at using scholarship to remove versus.

This all came from me reading John 5:4 and having a friendly discussion with my sibling. They opened their Greek New Testament, saw it wasn’t there, and dismissed me. I’m left thinking about the reasonableness about what they said. It’s not in the original, toss it out. Yet, I refuse to deal so liberally between two extremes. In one sense, if it is addition, my zeal for truth makes me want to get rid of all the Bible’s with these errors. The other extreme is the idea of the modern scholar tearing apart versus of scripture that it “seems” the Spirit has blessed the transmission of.

This question exposes my lack of scholarship, and maybe some immaturity. I’d appreciate some help

-Ryan
 
Hello Ryan,

The margin notes in the NKJV says, "NU omits the rest of v. 3 and all of v. 4.".

NU stands for the testimonies of the Critical Texts, Nestle-Aland and the United Bible Societies (identical in their texts).

The KJV, NKJV, other versions based on the Greek TR, and the Geneva Bible all retain it. I don't have time at the moment to check on the other Reformation foreign language translations (French, German, Italian, and Dutch) around the 1600s and 1700s. The Dutch no doubt have it.

It goes back to the controversy over the Received Text (Textus Receptus) and other lines of transmission, resulting in the Critical and Eclectic Texts. There is a lot of discussion on this topic here at PB.

I hold it is surely authentic.
 
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