SkylerGerald
Puritan Board Freshman
I have often heard people put a distinction between joy and happiness. I myself have done that for the longest time merely in following the example. The distinction typically goes like a few of the following:
“Happiness is based on circumstances but joy is not”
“Happiness is fleeting but joy is eternal”
“Happiness is a feeling but joy is an estate of blessedness”
Though, I’ve recently become skeptical that such a distinction exists. It seems like a distinction without a difference, in fact, and the definitions are being imposed on the words unnaturally.
I first heard an argument against this distinction from Randy Alcorn on Desiring God (makes sense). He pulls at puritans using the two words interchangeably as well as the words showing up in OT poetic parallelism.
But what do you think? Is this a distinction warranted or is it a christianese saying that has been assumed as passed down as it was to me?
Edit: I should mention that there is a related thread from 2013 on the subject but it didn’t seem to address it well as it panned out though the prompt was well put
“Happiness is based on circumstances but joy is not”
“Happiness is fleeting but joy is eternal”
“Happiness is a feeling but joy is an estate of blessedness”
Though, I’ve recently become skeptical that such a distinction exists. It seems like a distinction without a difference, in fact, and the definitions are being imposed on the words unnaturally.
I first heard an argument against this distinction from Randy Alcorn on Desiring God (makes sense). He pulls at puritans using the two words interchangeably as well as the words showing up in OT poetic parallelism.
But what do you think? Is this a distinction warranted or is it a christianese saying that has been assumed as passed down as it was to me?
Edit: I should mention that there is a related thread from 2013 on the subject but it didn’t seem to address it well as it panned out though the prompt was well put