I posed this question to a LCMS frieind,
It is ok if you want to say that Jesus died for the "goats"(Universal Atonement), I have no problem with that, but it is true that Jesus only saves His sheep (Limited Atonement).
His reply,
The problem with what you are formulating there is that A) if you say Jesus died for the goats (which he did) AND B) Jesus only saves the sheep (which is untrue, he has saved the world the entire world has been saved some refuse the gift by unbelief, but that Jesus took away the sin of the world) IF you have A and B in this, then what does Christ's death mean to that formulation? - You have taken away the benefit of the death. Why then would Christ have died for the goats? Christ's death was efficacious for the taking away the sin of the entire world. And when sin is taken away, there is no longer a separation between God and man. Faith receives this benefit, so unbelief rejects it.
2 Peter 2:1 doesn't help the Limited Atonement camp.
2 Peter:2:1 But false prophets also arose among the people, just as there will be false teachers among you, who will secretly bring in destructive heresies, even denying the Master who bought them, bringing upon themselves swift destruction.
Just curious as to how the "reformed" responed to this verse.
Also 1 Timothy 4:10
10 For to this end we toil and strive, [1] because we have our hope set on the living God, who is the Savior of all people, especially of those who believe.
Scott,
Your friend believes in Limited Atonement--Limited in POWER, because it only makes salvation POSSIBLE, not EFFECTUAL, toward humans. In the world of synergistic atonement, what makes the Cross effectual is MAN'S WILL to choose.
The Reformed church proclaims a Cross that does actually save EVERY person for whom the sacrifice was made, limiting only the SCOPE of redemption. GOD'S WILL to save is effectual to the breaking down of every barrier in man's heart to his grace.
In the Reformed world of monergistic salvation, Limited Atonement, or Particular Redemption, is the objective work that makes the whole subjective experience of salvation a reality. Your friend's big problem seems
first of all to lie with the nature of the will. How does one ever come to the place where he can exercise faith? And if a person has been brought to the place where faith is possible, then he certainly will exercise it as naturally as seeing with his eyes.
I would recommend that he read Martin Luther's
Bondage of the Will. Wrestle with that text, and if he can believe in the theology of Martin Luther, then he will have far less trouble with Limited Atonement.
Other points:
1) So, is unbelief a sin? If it is, then Jesus must have died for that too, and then we are in Universalism--'Jesus died for ALL the sins of ALL people'.
2) Or if Jesus didn't die for unbelief, then all sin wasn't atoned for, and we are still in our sins--'Jesus died for SOME of the sins of ALL people'. Because
no doubt about it unbelief is the sin of sins. Doubt that, and one might as well admit he's practicing an alternate religion.
So, which is it?
Or did Jesus pay for ALL the sins of SOME people? I'll gladly 'take on' problem texts, but those on the other side never seem willing to answer Jesus who said: "I lay down my life for the sheep... YOU are not my sheep!"
(John 10:15, 25)
2 Pet. 2:1
ONLY place in NT where God (or Christ) is called "despotes". Must be some reason Peter chose that word, not kurios, or didaskalos.
The subject of the verse (the ones who are described as "bought") are
false-teachers. Therefore, they are claiming to be Christians, and claiming that God not only bought them out of sin, but made them leaders in his church. And they are leading men astray. So, Peter is describing these men according to their own claims, and mocking their claims, pointing out the massive incongruity between their profession and reality.
1 Tim. 4:10
The phrase "all men" should be interpreted as in 2:1 & 4, where it refers to "all
kinds of men," as in "pray for all
kinds of men," (if meaning is specific, this command cannot be kept; however it
can be kept in a general way), which is followed by specific examples of kinds of men--"don't forget the kings, authorities."
The concept of v.6 ("ransom for all") has to be received in the same context--"all men" as previously defined, and Jesus is the only Mediator available for the whole race; the ransom price he paid is available to the utmost degree--not merely for the Jewish people, v.7, "for this reason I was appointed ...an apostle of the Gentiles." So, there are recognizable sub-classes of people, or kinds of people, but Jesus is not an exclusive Messiah.
Back to 4:10--"Savior of all men" should be interpreted in context of Paul's own standard of speech. Jesus is the ONLY Savior for Jews or Gentiles. Obviously he doesn't save EVERY person, unless we are proclaiming Universalism.
"Specially of believers"--special
how? Special, in that he's exclusively and ONLY Savior of believers, when it gets down to particulars and out of generalities and broader, vaguer language. Simple fact: Jesus doesn't save those who don't believe in him. It's ridiculous to call him a Savior of them who don't get saved!
This is why is silly to tell an unbeliever that Jesus has saved them from their sins, when if they die, their sins do in fact kill them eternally. Jesus has made salvation available, period, whereas without him there in no salvation, period. You can say to the lost "Jesus is THE Savior," or "Jesus is YOUR Savior" (meaning in either case he's the ONLY ONE available), so tack on "if you'll have him." Wow. That sounded just like 1 Tim. 4:10.
For us Reformed folk, we have no problem admitting that salvation from man's standpoint involves faith; its absolutely vital. But the Bible tells us more than that; it tells us about how that's even possible. And the explanation for HOW can never be found extrapolated from human capabilities. Particularly when those variable capabilities are themselves endowed from God--either in creation, and fallen and broken; or renewed in regeneration.
Hope this is helpful.