Grant
Puritan Board Graduate
So in Mark 2:1-12 Jesus publicly forgives the sins of the paralytic. Of course if is criticized by some in the crowd as making a blasphemous claim by those who did not see/believe that Jesus was the God-Man.
I am studying Mark 2 for the next couple weeks, my initial thoughts also brought me to the Church controversy related to protestants and Rome on penance and more specifically absolution.
So I am asking this more for a historical understanding.
In the R.C. church are priest announcing the forgiveness of sins on their own authority (thus also being blasphemy) or are they stating this line on the basis of the authority of Christ? I plan on studying a view commentators on this subject, but I noted a quick search in a transcript by the late R.C. Sproul:
https://www.ligonier.org/learn/sermons/mark-healing-paralytic (bolded by me for specific comment on interest):
So would you agree with Sproul that it might be too heavy handed to criticize Rome on this specific point, or was Sproul being too light handed?
I am studying Mark 2 for the next couple weeks, my initial thoughts also brought me to the Church controversy related to protestants and Rome on penance and more specifically absolution.
So I am asking this more for a historical understanding.
In the R.C. church are priest announcing the forgiveness of sins on their own authority (thus also being blasphemy) or are they stating this line on the basis of the authority of Christ? I plan on studying a view commentators on this subject, but I noted a quick search in a transcript by the late R.C. Sproul:
https://www.ligonier.org/learn/sermons/mark-healing-paralytic (bolded by me for specific comment on interest):
At the heart of the controversy that erupted in the sixteenth century between the Reformers and the Roman Catholic Church was the church’s understanding of the sacrament of penance. There are many factors to that, but part of the sacrament of penance was confession and priestly absolution. The penitent church person would come into the confessional and say, “Father, I have sinned, and it’s been so long since my last confession.” He would recite his sins, and he would have to go through his act of contrition and so on.
The highlight was when the priest would use the words te absolvo, “I absolve you.” Some Protestants get really upset when they hear about that, and they say, “What right does the priest have to say, ‘I absolve you’?” Well, for centuries the church was very careful to point out that no priest has the inherent authority to forgive sins. Only God can forgive sins.
When the priest says te absolvo, he is saying in shorthand, “In the name of Jesus Christ, who does have the authority to forgive your sins, I declare you absolved by your repentance.” So, the problem with the Reformation was not with what the priest said there; it was with other aspects of the sacrament of penance, which we can treat on another day. Luther kept the confessional for this reason. He said, “People need a word of assurance that they are being forgiven.”
So would you agree with Sproul that it might be too heavy handed to criticize Rome on this specific point, or was Sproul being too light handed?