VirginiaHuguenot
Puritanboard Librarian
Matthew 1.5: And Salmon begat Booz of Rachab; and Booz begat Obed of Ruth; and Obed begat Jesse;
In this text, we see that Rahab the harlot married Salmon, a prince in Israel, and was the mother of Boaz, who married Ruth. Rahab the harlot and Ruth the Moabitess (as well as Tamar and Bathsheeba) are both mentioned Matthew's genealogy of Christ which tends to highlight the humiliation of our Lord and also the sovereignty of God in bringing forth the Messiah from such a lineage.
As Matthew Poole says (which is worth considering):
If I am not mistaken this verse is the only one in the Bible that confirms that Boaz was the son of Rahab. Is this correct? Any thoughts on this passage?
In this text, we see that Rahab the harlot married Salmon, a prince in Israel, and was the mother of Boaz, who married Ruth. Rahab the harlot and Ruth the Moabitess (as well as Tamar and Bathsheeba) are both mentioned Matthew's genealogy of Christ which tends to highlight the humiliation of our Lord and also the sovereignty of God in bringing forth the Messiah from such a lineage.
As Matthew Poole says (which is worth considering):
But we ought to consider, 1. That (abating original corruption, which we indeed all derive from our parents) no man deriveth any intrinsic badness from the vice of his parents, though he may derive a blot upon his honour and reputation from it. 2. That this was one degree of our Saviour's humiliation. 3. That it was no way incongruous, that He who came into the world to die for great sinners, should be born of some that were such.
If I am not mistaken this verse is the only one in the Bible that confirms that Boaz was the son of Rahab. Is this correct? Any thoughts on this passage?