ChrisJuloya
Puritan Board Freshman
Hi brothers and sisters!
It's been a while since I posted here. But would like to ask for your thoughts on A Cappella congregational singing. I have read Purely Presbyterian's posts on the matter, I have read Wes' Aiming to Please, I understand that Eph 4:19's making melody (psallontes) according to BDAG to express "with or without instrument" (the LXX's use of psallo with instruments is niggen in Hebrew and azammerah for just singing praises [Jdg 5:3; 2 Sam 22:50; Ps 7:18; 9:3; 9:11, etc.] and only expresses use of instruments when it comes with nevel or harp and kinnor or lyre [1 Sam 16:16,17, 23; 2 Kgs 3:15; Ps 32:2; 70:22, etc.] and the NT Greek uses it simply for singing praise and was never used together with reference to instruments [Rom 15:9; 1 Cor 14:15; Eph 5:19; Jam 5:13]) and that the modifier "by/with your heart" may express either simply as "heartfelt" or as Purely Presbyterian argues, the instrument/organ to be used in making melody.
But my question are the following:
1. If instruments, as argued by the proponents of A Cappella congregational singing, are part of the Old Covenant types and shadows which was an element and therefore could not become a circumstance in the NC, how are instruments different with the hymnal that dictate tunes and serve as aid and facilitate order in singing? Does that mean the tunes/notes of the OC was a circumstance while the instrument as element or would both be elements? If both instruments and tunes/notes are elements then the tunes/notes could not become a circumstance in the NC as well, does that make sense?
2. Would you say that there's a possibility that there is a divinely inspired tune (whether it be a circumstance or an element) revealed to the OT saints/Israel in singing the psalms at least as how it was practiced in the OC, preserved and passed down within Israel from pre to post exilic times, then to the Jews of the time of Jesus (which He also sung growing up as with the Twelve) then to the Christians, which they practiced and sung in the synagogues?
3. Particularly with those who adhere to the Three Forms of Unity, would adhering to A Cappella congregational singing as the biblical practice binding the consciences of the congregation as BCF 32 confesses?
And would this then mean use of instruments be sinful?
I asked this for this has become an important topic in our church and circle as we (1) seek to transition to A Cappella congregational singing and want to be able to touch all areas as we explain it to the congregation, (2) this is also a matter important to another federation that we are in the works of uniting with to form as one federation.
I appreciate your assistance in helping me meditate and navigate on this matter.
Thank you for your answers.
It's been a while since I posted here. But would like to ask for your thoughts on A Cappella congregational singing. I have read Purely Presbyterian's posts on the matter, I have read Wes' Aiming to Please, I understand that Eph 4:19's making melody (psallontes) according to BDAG to express "with or without instrument" (the LXX's use of psallo with instruments is niggen in Hebrew and azammerah for just singing praises [Jdg 5:3; 2 Sam 22:50; Ps 7:18; 9:3; 9:11, etc.] and only expresses use of instruments when it comes with nevel or harp and kinnor or lyre [1 Sam 16:16,17, 23; 2 Kgs 3:15; Ps 32:2; 70:22, etc.] and the NT Greek uses it simply for singing praise and was never used together with reference to instruments [Rom 15:9; 1 Cor 14:15; Eph 5:19; Jam 5:13]) and that the modifier "by/with your heart" may express either simply as "heartfelt" or as Purely Presbyterian argues, the instrument/organ to be used in making melody.
But my question are the following:
1. If instruments, as argued by the proponents of A Cappella congregational singing, are part of the Old Covenant types and shadows which was an element and therefore could not become a circumstance in the NC, how are instruments different with the hymnal that dictate tunes and serve as aid and facilitate order in singing? Does that mean the tunes/notes of the OC was a circumstance while the instrument as element or would both be elements? If both instruments and tunes/notes are elements then the tunes/notes could not become a circumstance in the NC as well, does that make sense?
2. Would you say that there's a possibility that there is a divinely inspired tune (whether it be a circumstance or an element) revealed to the OT saints/Israel in singing the psalms at least as how it was practiced in the OC, preserved and passed down within Israel from pre to post exilic times, then to the Jews of the time of Jesus (which He also sung growing up as with the Twelve) then to the Christians, which they practiced and sung in the synagogues?
3. Particularly with those who adhere to the Three Forms of Unity, would adhering to A Cappella congregational singing as the biblical practice binding the consciences of the congregation as BCF 32 confesses?
And would this then mean use of instruments be sinful?
I asked this for this has become an important topic in our church and circle as we (1) seek to transition to A Cappella congregational singing and want to be able to touch all areas as we explain it to the congregation, (2) this is also a matter important to another federation that we are in the works of uniting with to form as one federation.
I appreciate your assistance in helping me meditate and navigate on this matter.
Thank you for your answers.
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