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Anthony,
I looked over Robbins’ essay, “In Christ”. Although he is well to the point as regards Gaffin’s assault on Biblical (& Reformed) doctrine, particularly Justification, as well as blurring the “order of salvation”, I find it a bit strained when explicating the uses of the term, en Christou. As though there were an aversion to anything that was not starkly rational.
It depends on what you are asking "to know".
The bible is not exhaustive in all things but the revelation of Christ for salvation. The Bible for example doesn't teach me not to stick my finger in a power socket because >1 amp of electricity will kill me, there science and experience unfortunately are sources for knowledge. The Scriptures teach of Christ revealed but they don't mathematics nor how to read language itself.
John V,
Yes, I knew when I wrote it that the phrase "starkly rational" was wanting, but I had to go. Re-thinking it a while now, I first opted for "merely rational" and then "strictly rational" but have settled for "exclusively rational," and which I shall amend the post in question to. I realize I may have to qualify even that.
What I mean to say is, Of the mind -- the intellect alone -- apart from spiritual understanding, or "cold reason" unillumined by heart. There is a discernment which is of the mind alone, and a discernment which is of the mind illumined by the Spirit through the Word. This can, of course, be "gainsayed" by those to whom these terms have different meanings. So I will have to let the Scripture, and exposition thereof, do the clarifying.
This using of common signifiers (words) which refer to different things signified (meanings) engenders a sort of mini-insanity, or at the best, confusion. The Scripture is the standard of clarity, when wielded by the Spirit of Christ. In this I rest my trust.
Steve
Anthony,
I looked over Robbins’ essay, “In Christ”. Although he is well to the point as regards Gaffin’s assault on Biblical (& Reformed) doctrine, particularly Justification, as well as blurring the “order of salvation”, I find it a bit strained when explicating the uses of the term, en Christou. As though there were an aversion to anything that was not exclusively rational.
God Spirit does give us a sense of peace. Although this sense is not intelligible, the idea that God gives us a sense of peace is fully intelligible. That's evident in the fact that I we read about it in Scripture and understand it.Like the peace of God which passes all understanding (Phil 4:7),
We are talking about Christ's relationship to the Church. We are His bride is not a literal state. We can not attribute more to this relationship than is intended. And God certainly did not intend up to understand more than we can intelligibly understand. Analogy's have limits. Jesus is the good shepherd has limited application.so the love of God passes our knowledge of it (Eph 3:19). Without doubt I can talk rationally about the union of a husband and wife, depicting the oneness of their flesh and the relations of their hearts as they abide in the Word of God, but I think it is beyond my ability – even as a poet – to put my finger on the quality of the affection they have for one another, and how this ineffable quality, which is, after all, the spirit that quickens the flesh of their bond, as it were….how this intangible could be captured in language I do not know. Is this intangible invalid because it cannot be completely depicted by reason?
Flesh and bones are reinforcing each other, the way saying "spirit and soul" is a way of adding emphasis. It doesn't mean we have both souls and spirits. So "body, flesh, bones, is emphasizing his point.When Paul says, “…we are members of his body, of his flesh, and of his bones” what is he saying?
And when, after saying in the next verse, of the husband and wife, “they two shall be one flesh”, he declares, “This is a great mystery: but I speak concerning Christ and the church” (Eph 5:30-32), what is he talking about?
I think the question to ask is: what is the difference between knowing about Jesus and knowing Jesus?That's a good question, but the answer is easy. The difference in knowing about Jesus and knowing Jesus is belief. If you believe what Jesus says, you know him. Knowing about Jesus implies knowing some proposition about Jesus. It does not imply actually believing those propositions are true.
Many people know about Jesus. But only those who are regenerate believe those propositions - specifically those propositions given in Scripture - are true.
If you love Jesus, you will obey him. If you know Jesus, you love Jesus, if you love Jesus you will obey Jesus.Can you say you love Jesus if you do not know Him?
No.And can you say you know Him if you do not love Him?
If you believe His Words, then you know him and love him. Belief in the Word is spiritual. If we believe the Scriptures, that is "spiritual contact". For only by the Holy Spirit can we believe the Scriptures.And is not spiritual contact with Jesus necessary to be able to say that you know and love Him?
You can still vote " I don't know". That's not a trick choice.
Does this disprove science's ability to give true knowledge?
Yes, and the Bible's ability to speak infallibly when it gives measurements.
I'm not sure where you're going with that. Do you mean that what I said proves too much? I assure you it's an honest question and I'm just trying to learn.
There's no doubting your integrity. I doubt the integrity of philosophical skepticism. The world moves, so there is no such thing as exact measurement; and yet the Bible provides us with exact measurements. Presupposing the infallibility of the Bible, we are bound to conclude an error must lie in the idea that there can be no such thing as exact measurement on the basis that the world is in constant motion.
IFalse weights are condemned and God commands specific measurements (ephah's, talents, cubits, etc.)
I'm the one honest guy.
But anyway, concerning "the scientific method" and "all of the above" (which would include the scientific method), what if I were to say that since there is no such thing as an exact measurement, science can therefore only provide beliefs but not true knowledge? What I mean is, if I were to ask you how long something is, you could never tell me exactly how long it is because you'd only be able to tell me using the most accurate instrument currently available. You may be able to tell me a reasonable guess that's practically useful, but never an absolute length.
Does this disprove science's ability to give true knowledge?
I'm the one honest guy.
But anyway, concerning "the scientific method" and "all of the above" (which would include the scientific method), what if I were to say that since there is no such thing as an exact measurement, science can therefore only provide beliefs but not true knowledge? What I mean is, if I were to ask you how long something is, you could never tell me exactly how long it is because you'd only be able to tell me using the most accurate instrument currently available. You may be able to tell me a reasonable guess that's practically useful, but never an absolute length.
Does this disprove science's ability to give true knowledge?
Yes, and the Bible's ability to speak infallibly when it gives measurements.
Could you explain what you mean by "false weight"?
I was just thinking about this except along differing lines. False weights are condemned and God commands specific measurements (ephah's, talents, cubits, etc.) Philosophical skepticism undermines that man can even comprehend or obey basic measurements. Of course, it's quite like Adam blaming Eve for sinning. God's not fooled by our sophistries.
But the point is that intent is only an opinion, is it not, because this relies on senses to determine whether what you're holding in your hand or measuring with has any real certainty. My problem with the conflation of language is that something that is mere "opinion" (I don't really know I'm cheating my neighbor because ephah relies on my senses) is something that God Himself calls abominable if we're not honest about.False weights has to do with the intent of those fixing the scales, not that an ephah, talent or cubit are somehow more exacting than a pound, dollar or centimeter. OK, the dollar excepted because fiat money and shell games like indexation, not to mention the government's ability to print money while outlawing private tender, all of which devalues the currency in the interest of government is theft. There's your false weights and measures.
[bible]Nevertheless, when I measure out grain to sell to my neighbor, I know in my heart whether I am being honest in my sale to him or not.
Sean,That's the key! It's the intent of the heart that makes the difference, not the epistemic value of a cubit. I'm also reminded here of Christian liberty (1 Cor. 8) and how we're to deal with weaker brothers who consider this or that sin. Even when we know something is not sinful, we're to take special care not to wound the conscience of a weaker brother. If we don't, then we're the one's guilty of sin.
Sean,
I think you're missing my point.
If I cannot trust my senses for knowledge then I don't understand how I could know whether or not I'm being honest. I've been told, earlier in this thread, I can't even be certain who my parents are much less whether I'm measuring out 6 lbs of grain to my neighbor!
You don't need to have epistemic certainity in order to be sure you are cheating your neighbor. All you need to have is the belief that you are cheating - even though it doesn't rise to the level of epistemic justification or knowledge - and you can be know you have sinned.
Also, inability of sensation to produce knowledge does not apply here. It has nothing to do with the efficacy of understanding that when you use a false measure, you have sinned. You can use experience to produce reasonable beliefs about when you are sinning or not. But knowing you have sinned depend on having the knowledge of God's law. Without that un-experienced knowledge, you could not say you have sinned at all.
Again, "know" in the epistemic sense and "know" in that assured sense are not the same thing. But if one simply believes they have cheated their neighbor, then they have sinned. (This assumes they a sure and did not correct the situation).
Which is it? Does it rise to the level of knowledge so I can know whether I have sinned or not?You don't need to have epistemic certainity in order to be sure you are cheating your neighbor. All you need to have is the belief that you are cheating - even though it doesn't rise to the level of epistemic justification or knowledge - and you can be know you have sinned.
Granted that you cannot know you have sinned without God's Law but you cannot know you have a false measure if you have no experience of a true measure. One you say you have knowledge of, the other you state you have no knowledge of. I think you create problems for yourself when you insist on philosophical definitions of commonly used terms.Also, inability of sensation to produce knowledge does not apply here. It has nothing to do with the efficacy of understanding that when you use a false measure, you have sinned. You can use experience to produce reasonable beliefs about when you are sinning or not. But knowing you have sinned depend on having the knowledge of God's law. Without that un-experienced knowledge, you could not say you have sinned at all.
Again, "know" in the epistemic sense and "know" in that assured sense are not the same thing. But if one simply believes they have cheated their neighbor, then they have sinned. (This assumes they a sure and did not correct the situation).