dsanch1120
Puritan Board Freshman
Hello everyone,
I was reading through Douglas Van Dorn's book "Waters of Creation," and he brought up an interesting question.
He argues against baptism replacing circumcision as the sign of the covenant by pointing to the covenant of grace between the time of Adam and Abraham. He says that there was no covenant sign before the Abrahamic covenant.
My question based on this is, did the Covenant of Grace have a covenant sign before Abraham? and if so, why would there not be a covenant sign until Abraham?
I was reading through Douglas Van Dorn's book "Waters of Creation," and he brought up an interesting question.
He argues against baptism replacing circumcision as the sign of the covenant by pointing to the covenant of grace between the time of Adam and Abraham. He says that there was no covenant sign before the Abrahamic covenant.
My question based on this is, did the Covenant of Grace have a covenant sign before Abraham? and if so, why would there not be a covenant sign until Abraham?