(To preface, I'm new here and I'm a Reformed Baptist. I am asking out of curiosity, not to start a Dutch‑vs‑Westminster polity debate.)
A few Presbyterian Elders I know of are starting a new denomination here in the United Kingdom, and they've released a paper on behalf of the denomination titled "Principles of Session-led Presbyterianism" (see doc attached). For a church to join the denomination, it must agree to subscribe to the Westminster standards -- expected. But they also advertise themselves as wanting to promote a "church life and ministry that is rooted in a Continental Reformed expression of the Westminster Confession."
I read the document, and it argues against Scottish-style hierarchical Presbyterianism, where ministers belong primarily to presbyteries and higher courts and are treated as possessing superior authority. The paper regards the Scottish model as carrying remnants of "clericalism", whereas a more continental Reformed model, especially as reflected in Dort, better protects the equality of elders and the integrity of the local church. In their framework, sessions rule and broader assemblies counsel and coordinate, and any binding force they have rests on prior, voluntary covenant commitments churches make - not judicial power.
That made me wonder how they interpret WCF 31.3, as they don't subscribe to the Three Forms of Unity. Well, the author cites WCF 31.3 (“It belongeth to synods and councils…”), including the clause that their decrees “are to be received with reverence and submission; not only for their agreement with the Word, but also for the power whereby they are made…”. He notes that some continental Reformed writers are uneasy with the phrase “for the power whereby they are made,” because the 1656 Latin version rendered “power” as potestas, implying official ruling power. He argues that this translation is not binding, because the Confession’s official text is English, not Latin, and “power” there need not be read as potestas (inherent jurisdiction) but can be understood as auctoritas (ministerial, persuasive authority). On that reading, it seems that synods and councils are limited to exercising advisory and coordinating authority; higher courts, therefore, do not inherently have judicial authority over sessions, as it is the sessions which are the "first subject" of power.
My questions are:
(a) Is this how Westminster Assembly members and other Westminster adherents in later generations read WCF 31.3?
(b) Does this amount to adopting a Dutch‑Reformed style of church government while re‑interpreting WCF 31.3 to stay loyal to the Westminster standards?
c) Am I missing the mark in how I’ve described his position or my questions about it?
Thanks in advance to anyone willing to answer.
A few Presbyterian Elders I know of are starting a new denomination here in the United Kingdom, and they've released a paper on behalf of the denomination titled "Principles of Session-led Presbyterianism" (see doc attached). For a church to join the denomination, it must agree to subscribe to the Westminster standards -- expected. But they also advertise themselves as wanting to promote a "church life and ministry that is rooted in a Continental Reformed expression of the Westminster Confession."
I read the document, and it argues against Scottish-style hierarchical Presbyterianism, where ministers belong primarily to presbyteries and higher courts and are treated as possessing superior authority. The paper regards the Scottish model as carrying remnants of "clericalism", whereas a more continental Reformed model, especially as reflected in Dort, better protects the equality of elders and the integrity of the local church. In their framework, sessions rule and broader assemblies counsel and coordinate, and any binding force they have rests on prior, voluntary covenant commitments churches make - not judicial power.
That made me wonder how they interpret WCF 31.3, as they don't subscribe to the Three Forms of Unity. Well, the author cites WCF 31.3 (“It belongeth to synods and councils…”), including the clause that their decrees “are to be received with reverence and submission; not only for their agreement with the Word, but also for the power whereby they are made…”. He notes that some continental Reformed writers are uneasy with the phrase “for the power whereby they are made,” because the 1656 Latin version rendered “power” as potestas, implying official ruling power. He argues that this translation is not binding, because the Confession’s official text is English, not Latin, and “power” there need not be read as potestas (inherent jurisdiction) but can be understood as auctoritas (ministerial, persuasive authority). On that reading, it seems that synods and councils are limited to exercising advisory and coordinating authority; higher courts, therefore, do not inherently have judicial authority over sessions, as it is the sessions which are the "first subject" of power.
My questions are:
(a) Is this how Westminster Assembly members and other Westminster adherents in later generations read WCF 31.3?
(b) Does this amount to adopting a Dutch‑Reformed style of church government while re‑interpreting WCF 31.3 to stay loyal to the Westminster standards?
c) Am I missing the mark in how I’ve described his position or my questions about it?
Thanks in advance to anyone willing to answer.