SRoper
Puritan Board Graduate
"I do not permit a woman to teach or to exercise authority over a man; rather, she is to remain quiet. For Adam was formed first, then Eve; and Adam was not deceived, but the woman was deceived and became a transgressor."
What is the scope of 1 Tim. 2:12-14 or what are the settings in which it applies? I once heard it suggested that it is talking about husbands and wives rather than men and women in general (and this was from a complimentarian). I thought it was a bit of a stretch at the time, but I'm finding it more compelling than the view that says it is talking about the gathered body of believers. Usually those who take this view limit it to the church. What is the reason for that? It seems strange that Paul would use the line of argument that he does if he meant to limit the scope to the ecclesiastical sphere. Why wouldn't "Adam was formed first, then Eve" apply to all of life--the workplace, government, etc.? Why should the scope be something other than married couples at one extreme or all spheres of life on the other?
What is the scope of 1 Tim. 2:12-14 or what are the settings in which it applies? I once heard it suggested that it is talking about husbands and wives rather than men and women in general (and this was from a complimentarian). I thought it was a bit of a stretch at the time, but I'm finding it more compelling than the view that says it is talking about the gathered body of believers. Usually those who take this view limit it to the church. What is the reason for that? It seems strange that Paul would use the line of argument that he does if he meant to limit the scope to the ecclesiastical sphere. Why wouldn't "Adam was formed first, then Eve" apply to all of life--the workplace, government, etc.? Why should the scope be something other than married couples at one extreme or all spheres of life on the other?