I dare say that I would have argued with the Reformers, since there were hardly any Alexandrian texts available, and thus it was easy to argue that the Alexandrian tradition was an aberration. However, that is not true anymore.
So after all that has been said, it would appear you believe the reformers only possessed something which approxiimated to the word of God, and that they did not possess the word of God in its purity -- that the Westminster divines were in fact incorrect in their claim to possess the authentical word of God. Would this be a fair assessment of your position?