KSon
Puritan Board Junior
This thread is not meant to be an ESV-bashing session. It is the version that the elders of my church have chosen as the one used from the pulpit and for teaching. I am trying (as a KJV/NKJV guy) to familiarize myself with it, as my opportunities to teach are gradually increasing.
My questions center on the word monogenēs, particularly at John 1:18 and 3:16. In each of these verses, in both the TR and NA/UBS, the word appears twice, back-to-back. The KJV, NKJV and NASB translate this as "only begotten" in both places. The ESV translates it as "only" in both places. This leads me to two questions that perhaps you can help me with:
1. Why does the ESV translate the two Greek words with just one English word? Apparently the translators of the KJV, NKJV, and NASB felt compelled to translate both words.
2. Are there any theological ramifications from choosing not to translate the additional word?
My questions center on the word monogenēs, particularly at John 1:18 and 3:16. In each of these verses, in both the TR and NA/UBS, the word appears twice, back-to-back. The KJV, NKJV and NASB translate this as "only begotten" in both places. The ESV translates it as "only" in both places. This leads me to two questions that perhaps you can help me with:
1. Why does the ESV translate the two Greek words with just one English word? Apparently the translators of the KJV, NKJV, and NASB felt compelled to translate both words.
2. Are there any theological ramifications from choosing not to translate the additional word?
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