Vincent Cheung

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Originally posted by Paul manata
CT wrote:

So, the information that I believe comes from something other than the sense is contradicted by the reformed arguments from cessation, but if that same info comes by the senses then the arguments from cessation have no effect?

No, your use of the language "God reveals" it does. You'd really need to sharpen your definition. Frankly, the area where I'm heading with this is going to put you on the level of anapostolic (without seeing the risen Lord, of course). How do you know Cheungs position is true? "Becuase God revealed it to me." Well, then! I guess no one can argue with you CT because to argue with you is to argue with God. But we'll see how this developes.

All arguments here will break down to showing the opponent is either going beyond scripture or contradicting scripture. So the game is to show

I will say that Cheungs position is true (at least this is my position today) because it is philsophically cogent and biblically cogent.

Are asking me to prove that there is not a piece of information somewhere that is not granted to us by God? Or that there is no autonomous information? If so, I will spend some more time on this tomorrow.

No, I asked you how you know how many ants are in your back yard. You said "God grants that info." I'm asking you to take me through the chain of reasoning. I want to see the steps worked out.

I dont think that I can. I think it would be going into to mere speculation to attempt to tell you. However if you wish to do the honors, I would be happy to listen.

If you dont know what it means then how can you deny it? Or are you denying it just to be safe

Sometimes people have different definitions. As I understand it I disagree because then you would make God a teller of lies.

It really depends on how you want to define a lie. God explicitly made Pharoah to believe that it was in his best interest to not let Israel go. Would you call that God lying to Pharoah?

I mean that God facilitates all actions within the universe. One action is the action of knowledge acquisition. One could not gain one small piece of knowledge without the action of God.

I could just put sense perception in there then. I do not believe that knowledge by experience is autonomous and until you stop lumping me in with the empericists then we will never get anywhere. Also, this is different then god conveying ALL info. The above is more specific and only deals with knowledge.

Cool add sense perception in there. Now you have to deal with God facilitating one person's sense to say that there are 500 ants and another person's sense to say that there are 510.

And when you stop dodging like those who believe in automony of man, I will stop lumping you with them.

Lastly, explain how this is different?

I never said that all is one. My position also does not assume such.

I know the rationalists don't have a "sense" of humor, but that's called a joke.

Ha and Double Ha

But if knowledge is gained by the physical senses, then you are going to have to link the physical senses to the thought processes. I dont see how you can avoid such. Are you attempting to avoid such?

As I said above the whole man is involved. So, yes, there are aspects of rationality involved in knowledge by sensation. But in some cases our senses are used in the knowledge aquisition process. My knowledge of ants in the backyard would not have been obtained without senseing the particular ants. More is involoved but the senses are in there.

Okay, give me the train of reasoning.

First what do you mean by knowledge? Justified beliefs or something else?

Justified, true, belief that is warranted.

Okay, we will see how this meshes with your last statment.

Also I am critiquing all knowledge acquisition that falls into the affirming the consequent fallacy.

If my senses are basically reliable then I can gain knowledge by them.

My senses are basically reliable (based on God's revelation).

Therefore I can gain knowledge by them.

See. I just affirmed the antecedant.

Basically??? Can you give me a percentage on basically? 90%? 95%? You must have had a situation when you thought something was true by senses but then found it out to be false later on due to some new sensations. Do you know when you are in the 10% or 5% error? When someone points it out to you and you gain a new sensation that contradicts the old one?

So something that you think is justified true belief that is warranted (your def for knowledge), can be shown to be false at a later point?

CT
 
Briefly, since I have to go to bed; I'll get to the rest tomorrow.

Originally posted by Paul manata
1) So unless you've heard my interpretation of this verse before, it cannot be correct, right?

No, you need to give me an interpretation that isn't fallacious. To argue, "well when the Bible speaks of *God*, a being with *no* eyes, and says 'see' that's what the verse talking about *man* *with* eyes means as well. I guess when I ask what does a verse mean about birds flying you'll say: "there's a verse that says God gathers us in his wings like a mother hen." Ricky, stop with the little games of trying to trap me... not gonna work.

So when I quoted Isa 44.18
They do not know nor understand;
For He has shut their *eyes*, so that they cannot *see*,
And their *hearts*, so that they cannot *understand*.

that doesn't count??? Fallacy of the false analogy right? I suppose the Lord sewed their eyes shut then? Or are these "being with no eyes" also? Come on, Paul, are you saying that the Bible speaks in contradictions? Either the senses 'convey' (or 'transmit', as you define it) knowledge or they don't. Or just sometimes, and if so, do you know which times they do, as opposed to when they do not? What 'causes' them to sometimes transmit knowledge and not at other times?


Knowledge is specific information about something? How specific? Something? Three headed dwarfs? You can know about three headed dwarfs, Ricky? What kind of information? I had a phone book once. It gave me the information for my friend Pete. The information was specific. But is was the wrong number. But since I had specific information I therefore *knew* Petes number?!?!!

You mean I can't know what the number "3", the word "heads", and the word "dwarves" mean?


Originally posted by RickyReformed
At the moment that I see my books the divine logos communicates all the knowledge that He wants my mind to comprehend, so the knowledge of how many books I have does not come from sensation, but from the logos.

I see, complain about me asserting an then you just assert. Prove it, Ricky.

Syllogism time!!!
P1 All things are created (Col 1:16) and sustained (Heb 1.3) by God.
P2 All knowledge is a thing
C1 Therefore all knowledge is created and sustained by God.





Are you a hyper-calvinist? Sounds like it? ... I may need to e-mail John Robbins so he can put you on his heresy watch list.

Abusive ad hominem.

I'm saying that if you say this is a universal claim for everyone: "divine logos communicates all the knowledge that He wants my mind to comprehend" then God communicated lies! ... God says X and ~X are both true.

Your equivocating on my use of "communicated"; all I am saying is God causes everything, even your false beliefs. You use communicated as "telling". There is a world of difference between saying "God caused Bill to believe X and John to believe Non-X" and saying "God says X and non-X" Doesn't God cause Joe Christian to believe the gospel and Penny Pagan to not believe the gospel? Again, is Penny's belief that the gospel is false determined by her own free will? By spontaneous generation? By _________?

How do you know that you "see" books, Ricky?

You said the logos tells you what he wants your mind to comprehend? So, lets say you looked at your book shelf and told me that you had a total of 35 books. I asked you if you *know* that. You say, "yes." Now, little did you know but there was a book that fell behind your book shelf and so you really had 36 books. ..."

Now, you didn't ask, "How many books to you own?" now did you? If you had, I was prepared to respond, "You mean how can I know inductively? Suppose I count all the books in my house and conclude that I have 50 books. But unbeknownst to me my daughter hid one under the bed. Or my wife left one in the car..." Tell me Paul, can we know anything for certain using induction?
 
Paul,
We are just having a intense discussion. How in the world can you justify calling in Robbins? You know that was low and uncalled for.

My comment was just a response to your claim that I was not understanding your argumentation. I believe I do understand and just disagree.

CT
 
Paul,
As an aside, I have no problem with induction. I believe that the Bible justifies it as Bahnsen shown in various places. However, I dont see how the you can say that induction can give you knowledge. Induction could only give justified true belief that is warranted if you were infinite and had all knowledge. However if you had all that, you wouldn't need induction.

I think that induction however does allow us to take dominion over all creation. It also allows us to do many useful things. But get to the truth??? I have not seen how we can use induction to do that.

By the way, I am an anti-realist who also believes in active reprobation (God does not just pass over the unregenerate, he is active in their rejecting Him and the truth of scripture).

I also do not intentionally lump everyone together. I have just not seen a reason to unlump you from certain others.

CT
 
Originally posted by Paul manata
"Induction could only give justified true belief that is warranted if you were infinite and had all knowledge. "

Or, if the one who had all knowledge told you that you could count on the uniformity of nature. A TA proves very *general* claims, so, I wouldn't have to know *every* aspect of nature, thus avoiding both your problems.

But counting on the uniformity of nature still does not really help you (if I define help as being able to derive truth). A I said, I have no problem saying that you can get some useful things by doing "science" however truth?? You have not justified such.

You keep attempting to lump me in with people who dont accept TA's I do accept them. I am not Brian ;)

I am at least a partial van-tillian.

As I said in the previous post, I see no reason to say that we cannot take dominion over creation and still say that an non infinite being cannot derive truth from induction.

"By the way, I am an anti-realist"

Of course you are.

You probably new the minute that I entered this thread. Just as I knew the opposite about you.

"who also believes in active reprobation (God does not just pass over the unregenerate, he is active in their rejecting Him and the truth of scripture)."

"And *THEY* exchanged the truth for the lie." You need to do justice to both, CT.

One question, so what is your way of doing justice to both?

Next, I have no problem with that quote. Since we both believe in the bondage of the will, I dont know how you can think that quote negatively effects my position. For a while, their will wanted to keep the truth and reject the lie, later it wanted the lie and to reject the truth. That is my "definition of active reprobation". If there is another one going around, could you show me how I differ.

I just dont see how that can be considered passive reprobation.

"I have just not seen a reason to unlump you from certain others."

I gave you reasons. You didn't address them. So, I can't help it if you just dogmaticaly assert.

I have attempted to address everything that you have thrown at me. If I missed something, it was unintentional. Try again and I will attempt to be more through.

CT
 
More comments on the problems with induction and not being infinite. For example, lets say that you observe that water goes down the bath tube train in clockwise direction. You study this 100k times. Therefore it is true by induction that water goes down the drain in a clockwise direction. But then you go to other hemisphere's and you now see that the water goes down in the counterclockwise direction. Does this disprove induction or did you just not have enough different observations to successfully train your model to predict what will happen in various situations?

Then there is the knowing how many books that I own problem. You say to yourself that I will count how many books are on my bookshelf and that is how many that I own. But then someone hides a book, one takes one and does not tell you, one book falls off the shelf and behind the couch. So the number you count is not the number of books that you own. Would you say that you have such knowledge of the books that you own and then that knowledge was turned into false knowledge when new knowledge came along (your friend returned the book that he borrowed).

This is a basic affirming the consequent problem. If I own fifty books, then I will count fifty books on my bookshelf. I count 50 books on my books shelf therefore I own 50 books.

This occurs because we are finite, and even if our senses were always razor sharp, we would still fall into these issues.

CT
 
"Man, I'm getting ganged up on by the clarkians."

Only if you redefine what "clarkian" means.

"Ricky knows how I feel about Robbins and his heresy watch. Ricky should have known I was joking, based on numerous conversations"

I was objecting more to being called a 'hyper-calvinist', as if somewhere in this conversation (or anywhere else for that matter) I had denied the Free Offer, Common Grace, etc. How many people who are reading this thread are going to walk away thinking I'm a hyper-calvinist?
Using emoticons could have helped distinguish your joking from name-calling.

"I know after the many schooling in the apologetics thread you left and read some logic text book and are very excited to use your new found skills."

You say that like it's a bad thing. :lol: <<<(see how the emoticon helps lighten the mood? :D )

"And *THEY* exchanged the truth for the lie."

Of course THEY exchanged the truth for a lie. Our question is what CAUSED them to exchange the truth for a lie? Is it not the same Creator who creates and sustains them? CT's position and mine has never entailed some sort of Christian pantheism, which is *implied* in your understanding of our position. You don't accept this position when it comes to election; I know you don't buy the Arminian caricature of calvinism which say that because the elect are caused to believe by God, God does the believing for them. Doesn't the same distinction hold true for the reprobate?

[Edited on 20-11-2004 by RickyReformed]
 
Originally posted by Paul manata
Hey I feel left out

Well, now I will address you, CT. Most of my criticisms of CT can be found above. But we will focus on a couple of new arguments CT uses.

We can't know anything from induction?

CT is an inductive skeptic. He argues that I can know nothing from induction. Here is his argument.


However, I dont see how the you can say that induction can give you knowledge. Induction could only give justified true belief that is warranted if you were infinite and had all knowledge. However if you had all that, you wouldn't need induction.

No. I do not need to be omniscient about ALL to be certain about SOME things.

By the way, thanks for not leaving me out ;)

Lets now get down to business.

I never said that you have to be omniscient to be certain about some things. I said that you have to be omniscient to be certain about some things when one is using induction. Those are two different ballparks. Being certain using deductive reasoning is perfectly cool.

For example God promised Noah that as long as the earth remains seed time and harvest, cold and heat, summer and winter, day and night, will remain.

A good biblical proposition from which much can be deduced. One such thing is the uniformity of nature. I have no problem with this biblical justification.

So, I know that when I walk into the next freezer it will be cold.

Not quite. The question is if it is possible for the freezer not to be cold and the uniformity of nature still hold? I would say, yes it is possible. For example, perhaps a power surge could cause the freezer to over heat and therefore break, making the freezer not cold. Or maybe even the power surge does something to the electronice that turns the cold into warm. The best we can say is that we have never seen any condition under which we entered a freezer and it was not cold. Now this does not mean that I tip toe into the freezer afraid that it could be a 1000 degrees inside.

Your only argument would be that the earth may not remain tomorrow. From that I will show you the absurdity of saying that the second coming could happen tomorrow.

I dont think the second coming will be tomorrow. I am also a Bahsonian post mil. But I would love to see the absurdity (I hope it will include exegesis, for one could attempt to logically show something to be untrue, but if the exegesis fails, you really have not closed the deal).

I know that the next time I squeeze a full tube of toothpaste the past will come out. I know that when you read this post you will understand the words that have meant what I intend them to mean up until you read it in the future from now. All your responses, furthermore, will assume induction. I'll show you if you'd like. So, if induction cannot give you knowledge then you had better not respond since you'd be assuming it.

First to assume the uniformity of nature does not assume induction. That is deductively known from scripture.

Also in case you have, misread me very badly, I will say that I have no problem with induction. I have a problem when it is used to go beyond its capabilities. I have also said that I believe that God has told us to take dominion over all creation. He has also made the earth so that is possible. If words were just changing, then communication would basically fall apart, negatively effecting the dominion mandate. Therefore I assume that (eventhough I have not sampled the whole range of nature's uniformity, I can safely assume that certain things wont occur.) If it turns out that I am wrong about words changing quickly under certain conditions, then I can rest assured that the dominion mandate is still in effect and civilization wont fail because of it.

CT thinks that I can't appeal to natures uniformity as I did above:


But counting on the uniformity of nature still does not really help you (if I define help as being able to derive truth). A I said, I have no problem saying that you can get some useful things by doing "science" however truth?? You have not justified such.

Yes, the uniformity of nature does help.

Paul: I know X by induction.

CT: How do you know it wont change since you not omniscient?

Paul: Because the one who is omniscient has promised by His covenant that he will keep nature uniform. Based on His sure word I justify it transcendentally.

I agree with you on the uniformity of nature. How many times do I have to tell you this???? This response does not hurt my position. The best you can say by induction is that "I have not seen X or Y occur, therefore I dont expect X or Y to occur in the future.

Now CT asks about future observation dis-confirming previous observation. He talks about all swans are white until the finding of a black swan (borrowed from Karl Popper's famous analogy). he wants to know if I knew (justified true belief that is warranted) that all swans were white? Well, of course not. It wouldn't have been true.

Okay Ill put the question a different way. Did you think that you had justified true belief that all swans were white, before the first black swan was found? If yes, then why is the next inductively derived info different? If no, then what caused you not to believe that you had a justified true belief?

But here we find the same sort of fallacies that the empirical skeptic uses. CT argues that there was a (or many) case/s of previously held beliefs being falsified and therefore, all such cases are falsified! hasty generalization. Furthermore, one can say the same with deduction. With a little imagination I can always say about the first universal premise (but how do you know all S are P?)?

Hasty generalization? My point is, that since using induction to get to truth in the past, has failed, then why do you assume that today is different than the past, and no you can get truth?

I would say we can only say that all S are P if the Bible says that all S are P? I think I am missing your point. You would have to refute the worldview derived from my first principle in order to get anywhere.

I've been asking these guys how many books they own. Here's CTs answer:


Then there is the knowing how many books that I own problem. You say to yourself that I will count how many books are on my bookshelf and that is how many that I own. But then someone hides a book, one takes one and does not tell you, one book falls off the shelf and behind the couch. So the number you count is not the number of books that you own. Would you say that you have such knowledge of the books that you own and then that knowledge was turned into false knowledge when new knowledge came along (your friend returned the book that he borrowed).

This is not what I say. All I'm asking is how they know how many books are on their shelf? My point is that they must use their senses but how do they know their senses are working properly? Don't people miscount all the time? People miss a book? Tell me how you do it with unreliable senses? Cheung says that when he looks at the words on the page of Scripture the divine logos "immediately" conveys what the words mean to his mind. If this is what's happening then why are so many Christians getting different meanings! Didn't Christ pray that we would all be one? So the Christ opposes himself? I think this is all terribly theologically confusing.

First off, you should be careful about attacking my position with an argument that attacks your position at the same time.

In your view, God is actively maintaining our senses through his normal providence. So when people count different things, God must be opposing himself because he is the one that is maintaining one person's sense in one way and maintaining another person's senses in a different way. It sure gets all confusing. :detective:

Next, concerning the realiability of the senses. The only way that you can tell that your senses have failed is if some later sense contradicts the earlier sense (and you assume the uniformity of nature) and come to some conclusion that either your earlier sense failed or your later sense was the wrong one.

What if you had been drinking a bit too much but didnt really realize it at the time (or that someone had drugged you). You go to count how many books are on your shelf. You miss an entire row. So you count 55, while there are 80 books. You know the 80 figure because you went back to count a couple days later. You then chalk up the contradiction to you have had too much to drink, or somehow you get a blood test to find out that you had been drugged. So you go back through you thoughts and delete the info during the suspecious period.

Then even when your senses are razor sharp, you could just be too far away to count your books. Lets say that you somehow had to count a few feet away (instead of by hand). You think your good to go, but you recount up close and find out that you missed two books.

So the ultimate question is how do you know that you have caught all the times when your senses were unreliable?

CT asks:


So something that you think is justified true belief that is warranted (your def for knowledge), can be shown to be false at a later point?

Of course. That's why we have the phrase, "I thought I knew." But I would like to see how your view doesn't allow for people to *know* contradictory things? If one knows because the divine logos conveyed information to him them Time and Pete can both be said to know contradictory propositions!

Actually in the words of Lee Corso: "Not so fast". You still have some splaining to do. Can you tell the difference between that which is true and that which is not true but has yet to be refuted (but will be in two weeks)?

Since, I am suspicious of that which is not inferred or deduced from scripture, I dont think you could put the knowing of two contradictory things on me.

Basically??? Can you give me a percentage on basically? 90%? 95%? You must have had a situation when you thought something was true by senses but then found it out to be false later on due to some new sensations. Do you know when you are in the 10% or 5% error? When someone points it out to you and you gain a new sensation that contradicts the old one?

Basic reliability is an epistemological term. Something is still reliable if it works under normal conditions. So, even though your car may start every other day except when it's 20 below, this does not mean your care is not reliable. So, God designed are cognitive faculties to operate in a normal environment. There are of course factors which decrease reliability (you may consult Plantinga'a Warrant trilogy for an extended discussion).

Here you know what all the conditions of failure are, but in real life it is not so simple. If you car had never been in 20 below temps before, you would assume that it is reliable there, until shown otherwise. Would you say that you have justified true belief that your car works all the time, until it fails at 20 below?

Plantinga seems to be a very interesting person. I will have to look into him at some point.

Lastly, why would anyone want an epistemological theory that leads to this conclusion?

CT writes when asked to give an account for how he knows how many ants are in his backyard using his "God tells me theory"

I dont think that I can. I think it would be going into to mere speculation to attempt to tell you. However if you wish to do the honors, I would be happy to listen.

Yeah, I can use my tactile and optical senses and count them.

[Edited on 11-21-2004 by Paul manata]

Which gives justified true belief to what the proper number are until it is shown that it does not?

CT
 
Originally posted by Paul manata

Yes but you just can't know anything from observation

Despite all of this it is, a priori, assumed that my interpretations cannot be correct since one just can't know anything by sense perception. But no one is immune from epistemological questions. We are going to have to ask RR just how he knows this claim?

I can decipher two arguments given, so far: (1) the argument from mistake or hallucination, (2) I'll call the argument from the relation between universals and particulars. I will deal with these in order.

(1) The argument from mistake or hallucination (TAMH).

It is argued that the senses are sometimes unreliable because we make mistakes sometimes. Gordon Clark talks about seeing a red object in the distance that he thought was a mailbox, but when he got closer he realized it was a red barn. TAMH, though, needs to answer how they know that the senses are mistaken. They can either argue that (1) I have made some mistakes in observation, therefore all observation is unreliable (hasty generalization). or, (2), they can say that they know they have made mistakes because other observation has corrected previous observation (such as the "red barn incident"). This is obviously self-refuting. That is, how can you say that observation is never eliabkle because some observation has reliably told you that your previous observation was unreliable. Lastly, to say that one is mistaken or hallucinating one must know what is real. One must have a copy of the real by which to compare the mistake to! RR cannot appeal to a copy of a universal since the knowledge has no content but is highly abstract. So, RR must compare it to an a posteriori copy! Van Til tells us, rightly so, that all a priori rationalism reduces to a posteriori empiricism.

It seems that you want to critique RR's position without attempt to salvage your own. If induction can get you truth, how can you tell when you actually have this truth and not just something that will be shown to be wrong tomorrow?

On this side of the coin, I do not have to say that the new observation that refuted the old observation, is the truth and the old one was false. (The old one could have been accurate and the new one could be the mistake). All I need to say is that I believe this new observation is more useful to me than the older observation. If new (different) observations come, then I can change this all around.

I dont see how these objections can really hurt an anti-realist. Now if I was a realist, I think I would be in serious pain right now.

CT
 
Paul, you stated that something can be called justified true belief, but then it could be shown to be false at some later point. Then what good is it? All it ends up meaning is that "according to what I have seen thus far, X is the answer". How does that not kill itself at the altar of skepticism?

CT
 
Originally posted by Paul manata
CT writes:


I said that you have to be omniscient to be certain about some things when one is using induction.

Are you certain? How do you know? Maybe you had to be certain in the past but not tomorrow?

Yes, for it would entail a formal fallacy.

Being certain using deductive reasoning is perfectly cool.

Deductive arguments are only true if their premises are true. How do you know that the premises are true, for certain?

Certain things are true by necessity.

A good biblical proposition from which much can be deduced. One such thing is the uniformity of nature. I have no problem with this biblical justification.

Good.

Agreement. Yahoo. :bigsmile:

Not quite. The question is if it is possible for the freezer not to be cold and the uniformity of nature still hold? I would say, yes it is possible. For example, perhaps a power surge could cause the freezer to over heat and therefore break, making the freezer not cold. Or maybe even the power surge does something to the electronice that turns the cold into warm. The best we can say is that we have never seen any condition under which we entered a freezer and it was not cold. Now this does not mean that I tip toe into the freezer afraid that it could be a 1000 degrees inside.

This just shows your ignorance about inductive arguments. The argument is that, all things being equal, I will know. So, the next freezer that I walk into, where the conditions are normal, then it will be cold... based on the uniformity of nature which you agreed to above.

How exactly do you know the normal conditions under which you observations hold, until you have found a condition under which they do not hold? You could have been on the edge for various days and then you just went over that edge.

But you are correct that if everything is like it was the previous day where you went into the freezer, then it will be cold just like the previous day.

CT, you can't critique an inductive argument by saying maybe the power would surge and then it wouldn't be cold. That's not even the argument. I suggest some study before you respond. Now, remeber what I said I was going to do to you? Well, how do you know that when you have a power surge that affects something that runs on power? Because it had in the past? Stop using inductive arguments to argue against induction, CT.

Have you ever heard of a thing called a hypothetical example that is used to internally critique? The argument is this: You have used induction to come to certain expectations for when you walk into freezers. You are not infinite so you could not say that you examined freezers under all the possible conditions. But what is that you say: "uniformity of nature". Okay cool. So what??? Nature can be uniform and you still could have not observed black swans.

Back to freezers: Remember I do not hate induction and I accept the uniformity of nature. I have a problem with using induction to find truth.

I do not know that power surges cause freezers to not be cold, until I have observed such a case. But that is the whole kicker. You cannot say that there will not be such a case, unless you can prove from the Bible that there will not be such a case.

I dont think the second coming will be tomorrow. I am also a Bahsonian post mil. But I would love to see the absurdity (I hope it will include exegesis, for one could attempt to logically show something to be untrue, but if the exegesis fails, you really have not closed the deal).

I don't need to since you are familar with all the arguments. You know the exegesis. If you don't think they lead to the conclusiion then you are a postmill against your better knowledge! Now, you know that there will be many YEARS of a golden age. You know that children who die at 100 will be considered cursed. You know the gospel must be preached to the nations. You know that the law will become a light to the nations and the socio/political foundation will be God's revealed law. You know that if Jesus came back tomorrow the millenniunm would already be over and that satan would be loosed to deceive the nations and the final apostacy and battle will take place. You know that all the enemies will be put under Christ's feet, the last one being death. And you know all this won;t happen withing, roughly, 15 hours:lol:

Okay.

Also, remeber what I said above, even if Jesus did come back that is a factor this is "not all things being equal." And, CT, why do you expect good exegesis? Is it because good exegesis in the past has convinced you of the truth of a position but why did you *act like* it would in the future?

I accept the uniformity of nature. I also understand the not all things being equal caveat. Therefore I act like something is true, until I no longer find it useful to say that it is true (this is not a statement about my view of scripture, it is how I view everything else).

First to assume the uniformity of nature does not assume induction. That is deductively known from scripture.

How do you know that what you deductively deduce from Scritpure today will hold tomorrow? Stop using induction.

Uniformity of nature? God word says that it does not change? Logic also does not change for God does not change?

Also in case you have, misread me very badly, I will say that I have no problem with induction. I have a problem when it is used to go beyond its capabilities. I have also said that I believe that God has told us to take dominion over all creation. He has also made the earth so that is possible. If words were just changing, then communication would basically fall apart, negatively effecting the dominion mandate. Therefore I assume that (eventhough I have not sampled the whole range of nature's uniformity, I can safely assume that certain things wont occur.) If it turns out that I am wrong about words changing quickly under certain conditions, then I can rest assured that the dominion mandate is still in effect and civilization wont fail because of it.

You still miss the point. This is basically what Stein said to Bahnsen. "Boy, if it changes won't that be a doosey!" But do we really act like this? CT, you don't even understand. So, as Bahnsen said to Stein: "Im not saying that, I'm asking: why do procede upon the EXPECTATION that they will hold tomorrow? Basically you have totally avoided my question.

I proceed with an expectation that things will be like tomorrow because the Bible says that God will keep things going in a regular manner. I am getting confused.

I agree with you on the uniformity of nature. How many times do I have to tell you this???? This response does not hurt my position. The best you can say by induction is that "I have not seen X or Y occur, therefore I dont expect X or Y to occur in the future.

So, the best CT can say is that he has not seen my argument succede so he doesn't expect it to in this conversation? Sorry, I'm not bothers by this, CT. You need bigger guns then saying, I've never seen an argument for induction so I don't expect to in this conversation. Wait/ Isn't this an inductive argument employed to argue against my using induction? Ct, stop with the inductive arguments.


Be my guest, use induction. I certainly do. I argue against being able to say that you have found the truth. Due to affirming the consequent. A formal fallacy.

Did you think that you had justified true belief that all swans were white, before the first black swan was found? If yes, then why is the next inductively derived info different?

Because not all questions, or types of things argued for are the same, CT. I *thought* I had justified true belief (if I indeed would in this illustration). But, this is not the same thing as, say, knowing that nature is uniform so I know that the next time I open my Bible to Genesis 1 it will read: In the begginning." CT, do you not KNOW this?

Yes, I do know this because of the arguments that I used above.

So if you accept the swan example, why are you not an inductive skeptic?

Hasty generalization? My point is, that since using induction to get to truth in the past, has failed, then why do you assume that today is different than the past, and no you can get truth?

Assumes it has failed in ALL cases, if your argument hasn't then it is hasty. Uses induction to argue against induction. Don't you see this????

How do you know that you have the truth and not just think that you have the truth?

Let's say that by induction, you have something exactly correct. How would you differentiate between that and something that you have seriously wrong but is consistent with the observations that you have made thus far?

Also if it has failed once. Why do you assume that the next time that it will not fail, instead of saying that "it might fail and it might not. I do not have to be correct about this"?

I would say we can only say that all S are P if the Bible says that all S are P?

CT, can you know that you are saved?

Yes.

Can you know that all dogs are canines?

If I define them in such a fashion.

Can you know that all women have a Y chromosone (or whatwever they have)?

Men have X and Y. Women have Two X's. No I cannot know that, unless I define that to be the case. "If you dont have two X's you are not a woman".

Can you know that all men who fall 1 million feet to the ground with a nuclear bomb attached to them so that it exploded on impact, will die?

It is possible to survive. I would not look for them to so do, but if someone was to show me tape and the person walking away. I would say WOW. (I probably would have to examine the tape to see if it was doctored as well)

CT, can you know that all the times we can say all S are P is when the Bible says all S are P? Now, you see the absurdity of your position. Why don't you follow some peopel with credentials instead of jumping on the latest bandwagon of some guy who worked and atheist who is a chump and is one of the dumbest atheists I have ever talked to.

Derek is dumb, Ill give you that. The rest we will have to fight over. I thought that most of this stuff had a gordon clark backing to it. He is not just some guy of the street. Next, I have no problem saying a lot of things. However those things without Biblical backing, I can accept being shown to be in error.

In your view, God is actively maintaining our senses through his normal providence. So when people count different things, God must be opposing himself because he is the one that is maintaining one person's sense in one way and maintaining another person's senses in a different way. It sure gets all confusing.

Not even close. There is a difference between what I said and saying that God TELLS!!!! or CONVEYS people all the information they have. Also, I hold to secondary causality (as does 98% of reformed theology). I would say that the fall and man's sinful nature are why he reasons poorly. I would read reformed systematics texts on what it means that man is free.

But in this situation we are not talking about reasoning errors. This is an issue of "I saw 50" and "I saw 55". So there is some information that we have that God did not convey or tell? I do not see how you can avoid saying that at the end of the day "God gets to us what he wants us to have". God does not say to himself. "Shucks if they did not have that pesky sin nature, I could have got this correct information to them"

Next, concerning the realiability of the senses. The only way that you can tell that your senses have failed is if some later sense contradicts the earlier sense (and you assume the uniformity of nature) and come to some conclusion that either your earlier sense failed or your later sense was the wrong one.

So?

So its possible that you senses could have failed but you did not know it?

What if you had been drinking a bit too much but didnt really realize it at the time (or that someone had drugged you). You go to count how many books are on your shelf. You miss an entire row. So you count 55, while there are 80 books. You know the 80 figure because you went back to count a couple days later. You then chalk up the contradiction to you have had too much to drink, or somehow you get a blood test to find out that you had been drugged. So you go back through you thoughts and delete the info during the suspecious period.

I hope everyone notices that CT REFUSES to tell me how he knows how many books he has on his shelf. Also, note my diiscussion of proper functioning cognative faculties.

I thought we went through this in the past few posts. What else do you want from me?

Then even when your senses are razor sharp, you could just be too far away to count your books. Lets say that you somehow had to count a few feet away (instead of by hand). You think your good to go, but you recount up close and find out that you missed two books.

Argues that since SOMETIMES my senses deceive me, therefore, they ALWAYS do. Ct, still waiting for you to argue for the conclusion in a non fallacious way.

Nope, I do not argue that always the sense deceive you. My point was that how would you know that they have deceived you or not?

I am a skeptic. As such I do not have to show you that you are wrong or correct here. I have to show that you cannot justify your conclusion. You can be right on, even if you use faulty reasoning. But what confidence can you place in your conclusion if you reasoning is faulty?

So the ultimate question is how do you know that you have caught all the times when your senses were unreliable?

I haven't? Who has ever said this??? CT, if you don't start critiquing my position I'll just let you chant you underdeveloped and naive epistemoloy to the air.

I have killed your position already. Why dont you see this.

Can you tell the difference between that which is true and that which is not true but has yet to be refuted (but will be in two weeks)?

In some instances. Transcendental truths are true but an inductive or deductive argument may later turn out to be false. But this doesn't matter! We would still say, "I thought I knew." You asked if justified true belief can be non-knowledge if the proposition happens to be false. To which the answer is, YES. That fully answers your question.

So justified true belief can turn out to be false. So that would make you an inductive skeptic as well?

Since, I am suspicious of that which is not inferred or deduced from scripture, I dont think you could put the knowing of two contradictory things on me.

Well above I deduced and inferred that Scripture says our senses are reliable! Also, how do you KNOW that what your eyes report back to you fromt the pages of scripture are the way it REALLY is?

Senses can be reliable. A good night sleep, no alcohol, no drugs, no extra stress etc. But things derived from observations would still have to deal with affirming the consequent. So those derived views could blow up at some future point, even with the uniformity of nature.

Because the Christian worldview is trancendentally necessary. If what I know isnt the way that it is, then knowledge is impossible.

If you car had never been in 20 below temps before, you would assume that it is reliable there, until shown otherwise. Would you say that you have justified true belief that your car works all the time, until it fails at 20 below?

Yaaaawwwwnnn. I wouldn't say I had that. The point, though, CT, is that ******IF IT DIDN"T****** that wouldn't make uit, therefore unreliable. So, just because my senses may deceive me when I am drunk does not mean that they are unreliable when I am not. Again, this gets into proper functioning cognative faculties. The way god made us. This is His environment. His world. I was created in a way that my senses are normally reliable etc etc etc.

No problem saying that what I see normally is "a car, a tv, etc." The problems occur at the margins (drunk or not). Do we know when we have reached the margin or not?

Which gives justified true belief to what the proper number are until it is shown that it does not?

Now is that what I said? If something was false then it couldn't ever be JTRUEB, now could it? But I told you the process of how I would know. I want you to tell me the process. Does you epistemology reduce to this sort of absurdity?

The process is that you count now and say that the number is X. Then you go about your business. If you somehow have a reason to recount at a later point and it does not mesh, then you attempt to determine which count was accurate.

It seems that you want to critique RR's position without attempt to salvage your own. If induction can get you truth, how can you tell when you actually have this truth and not just something that will be shown to be wrong tomorrow?

Well, RR's position has been totally devistated since I showed that he couldn't know anything since his theory of knowledge defeates itself. Secondly, because nature is uniform, CT? I didn't say that I could know ALL things by induction, did I. I gave examples above of SOME things I can know. But, what if I were to say that a magik fairy told me? Why would you assume that this isn't the case since you have never observed one, AND the Bible doesn't say that there aren't??? Silly epistemology.

I would assume it because I have not seen a magik fairy and Nature being uniform does not salvage the swans example.

On this side of the coin, I do not have to say that the new observation that refuted the old observation, is the truth and the old one was false. (The old one could have been accurate and the new one could be the mistake). All I need to say is that I believe this new observation is more useful to me than the older observation. If new (different) observations come, then I can change this all around.

This is a pragmatic justification and pragmatic justifications suffer from (1) you would have to know the future to say it was useful, and all the factors involved. (2) useful always breaks down on analysis and resorts to subjectivism and skepticism. Anyway, read Pragmatism, Predjudice, and Presuppotionalism by Bahnsen for a thurough trouncing of these types of justifictaions.

I have read the article. Its good stuff. The counter claims do not affect me because I am not attempting to derive truth from these observations. I could be wrong about what is useful and what is not. I might think that handling radio-active material is useful to long life.

I also do not have a problem with skepticism for I am just being pragmatic, not saying that I have the truth.

I do not have to say that the new observation that refuted the old observation, is the truth and the old one was false.

If one doesn't have to say that sense perceptions could be false, or mistaken, then how can you argue that they are ever false? How could you ever KNOW that they are FALSE? That's the question, CT. If you can't KNOW that they are false then your arguments crumble. So, show how you KNOW this and I'll show you how you would have to asume the reliability of your senses to know it:D

Actually what I said was not to say that the senses are not reliable. It was to say that given them being reliable, you can still never get to justified truth status. The only way that you could say that you have the truth, is if the Bible said something like: "When you see purple with polka dots, then Jesus is coming in five days". In this case, you do not have to worry about affirming the consequent, because an infinite God has told you that you do not have to worry about alternate explanation of the purple with pink polka dots.

CT

[Edited on 22-11-2004 by ChristianTrader]
 
Originally posted by Paul manata
Originally posted by ChristianTrader
Paul, you stated that something can be called justified true belief, but then it could be shown to be false at some later point. Then what good is it? All it ends up meaning is that "according to what I have seen thus far, X is the answer". How does that not kill itself at the altar of skepticism?

CT

you're confusing someone *saying* that it is JTB, with it actually *being* JTB. You're barking up the wrong tree.

That is exactly what I am asking, how does one tell the difference?

The good it is is that I have necessary and sufficient conditions for granting that one does know something. The definition is highly general. I'm saying that *if* someone claims to know something then it had better be: believed, true, believed with a proper account of justification.

Okay, cool. So at some point in the past, someone believe that all swans are white was "Believed, true, believed with a proper account of justification". But later on it turned out to be false. How do you know if you have a swan situation versus something that will not be later shown to be false?

But CT, unless you tell me your definition of knowledge I can ignore your posts since, for all I know, you don;t know anythhing that you're saying. I'm gonna show that it is *your* position that can't avoid skepticism. I would recommend not going to the dictionary like our friend did:lol:

I'll accept yours. I dont need to re-invent the wheel.

Now, you have missed the point of all my arguments. I've been giving a presuppositional defense of these things. So, you're still stuck in critiquing me along autonomous man lines. You really need to get over this hump if you're gowing to grow. I've supported my position from the bible and given three accounts now of my view of the senses being used for the aquisition of knowledge.

Nope, I have not used autonomous man lines.

About the three accounts, it must have been in the rick part of the super post from yesterday. I will relook.

Oh, yeah, you seem to imply that saying that: according to what I have seen thus far, X is the answer kills itself at the alter of skepticism. First, you need a definition of knowledge where epistemic questions are even going to be made intelligible.

I accept the one you gave above.

Second, maybe this killed itself at the alter of skepticism in the past but maybe in this convo it won't.

Well, if you can justify believing that we will be infinite in the future, then perhaps. Show me, the scriptural argument and we can play ball.

So, stop using induction to justify your arguments. Skepticism doubts our claim to justification. Since this is doubted they say we can't have knowledge. But since I have no clue about what you mean by knowledge then this seems incoherent. Maybe there is no such thing as knowledge and therefore, skepticism doesn't matter. CT, I know it's fun trying to play the fun philosopher and just critique other people positions but you are going to need to start to develope your own. I doubt that you explanation will measure up to the rigerous demands of an epistemological theory.

Perhaps it will measure up or it wont. We will have to see. Secondly everyone is a skeptic about something. The question is if we can avoid complete skeptism (which is a self contradiction).

Lastly, you ask: "Then what good is it? All it ends up meaning is that "according to what I have seen thus far, X is the answer". How does that not kill itself at the altar of skepticism" Uh, CT, did you deduce or infer *this* claim from Scripture? If not, then you don't know it and so you, again, refute yourself.

It is a formal fallacy. When you reason fallaciously, then how can you justify not being a skeptic about your conclusion?

CT
 
Originally posted by Paul manata
...also, CT, can you explain this for me?

The cloak that I left at Troas with Carpus, when you come, bring, and the books, especially the parchments. II Timothy 4:13

This is an imperitive. As an imperitive it is *neither* true or false, according to logical classifications of "truth-value-ness". Only statements which have truth-value can be used in the formulation of arguments. So, prove that Paul left his cloak in Troas.

Well an imperitive presupposes a proposition that can either be true or false. Since this statement is in scripture, what it presupposes is true. One proposition is that Paul left his cloak in Troas. Therefore that statement is true.

Second, this implies the reliability of memory. How do you know memory is reliable, CT? At least as many of the same types of arguments you use against sense perception can be used against memory. So, how did Paul know he left his cloak in Troas? Did God reveal this to Paul:lol: If so, how do you know this? Is *that* in Scripture?

There are two questions here: 1) Was it possible for Paul to have thought that he left his cloak at Troas but he left his cloak in Jerusalem? Yes. As in was Paul's memory infallible (at least in an everyday sense)? No.

2) Did Paul leave his cloak at Troas? Yes. The inspiration of scripture testifies to its accuracy in everything.

CT
 
Originally posted by Paul manata
sorry, the more I keep think about this the more silly ti becomes. CT wrote:


I would say we can only say that all S are P if the Bible says that all S are P?

What about Adam in the garden??? Since Adam didn't have a Bible then could he never say (or know), all such and such are such and such? What about Noah? He didn't have a Bible/

I would say that we can only say that all S are P and be infallible correct if the Bible says so.

Adam and Noah could never reach that level unless God spoke to them directly (like scripture directly speaks to us today).

What about this

10 He waited seven more days and again sent out the dove from the ark. 11 When the dove returned to him in the evening, there in its beak was a freshly plucked olive leaf! Then Noah knew that the water had receded from the earth. 12 He waited seven more days and sent the dove out again, but this time it did not return to him.

Wait wait wait wait, wait a minute! Nohah didnt' KNOW that when birds bring back leaves that means the water had receded! That's, that's, well, that's induction!

Actually no problem because he knew that God had covered everything with water. Therefore, he deduced that something not covered with water, mean that the water had receded.

Genesis 37
13 and Israel said to Joseph, "As you know, your brothers are grazing the flocks near Shechem. Come, I am going to send you to them."
"Very well," he replied.

How did he know this? Oh yeah, the divine logis communicated it to him. But how did Israel know that Joeseph knew? Oh yeaaahh, I keep forgetting, the divine logos comminicated *that* to him also. But could they infer or deduce it from scripture???

No, so it is possible that such occurances can be shown to be false. In this case, we know it is true, for the scriptures included the information.

C'mon, guys. Thi is just an underveloped and naive view of epistemology.

I dont think so, but we have plenty of time to discuss.

CT
 
Originally posted by Paul manata
Ct,

Sorry, I've used the Bible to argue from my position. Until you deal with them i take God's word over you.

That is the way that it is supposed to be.

I've already shown how I can avoid the affirming the consequent fallacy.

(1) If my senses are reliable i can gain knowledge by them.
(2) My senses are reliable (God's word)
(3) Therefore I can gain knowledge by them

I truly think that we are operating on different terms for knowledge.

Can you say that it is impossible for me to be wrong about some inductive claim? Are there some inductive claims that you cannot say such about? How do you differentiate between the two.

CT
 
Originally posted by Paul manata


QUOTE: So justified true belief can turn out to be false. So that would make you an inductive skeptic as well? UNQUOTE

LAST TIME, CT. JTB CANNOT TURN OUT TO BE FALSE BUT I COULD BE WRONG THAT I HAD IT.

I do not disagree. I have not even stated disagreement with that statement. (Edit: I did not mean to express disagreement with the statement, I think/thought that you statements were leading me in the direction of what I wrote)

How do you know that you are not wrong when you say that I have JTB that X is the case?

Or put another way, What does it take to go from "I think I have justified true belief, to saying that I have justified true belief"

Also could you give me an example of each?

If you can answer this one thing. I do not think we will have any more disagreement.

CT

[Edited on 22-11-2004 by ChristianTrader]

[Edited on 22-11-2004 by ChristianTrader]
 
Originally posted by Paul manata
I truly think that we are operating on different terms for knowledge.

Well, why wont you give your definition of knowledge? I keep asking fr it. How can you even think you have an epistemology without a definition for knowledge?

My view of knowledge would be that I am absolutely philosophically certain that I have justified true belief.

Or put another way, What does it take to go from "I think I have justified true belief, to saying that I have justified true belief"

If I believe it I have satisfied the belief claim. If I justify it I have satisfied that. If it is true I have satisfied that.

Belief: no problem.

truth: this is what fundamentally conforms to the mind of God.

justification: all my beliefs are, ultimately, justified transcendentaly.

But since we are fallen, is it not possible that you will call something transcendental when it is not? (For example the Bible does not say that one is without excuse for every single doctrine). Some of Paul's writing are also hard and people can distort them.

Also is it possible to think that something conforms to the mind of God and you actually be wrong?

This is all very abstract. We would have to get to the specifics. You'd probably be surprised at what I claim to know and not know.

Now, of course in ALL cases that I really do have justified true belief I will also think I do. So you're really asking how I know that I do have justified true belief. You would have to give me a specific probelm. Of course I would say that I had justified true belief because I believe X, X is true, and X is justified. So, take the freezer.

The issue is can you get to the truth (and be justified in calling it the truth), without being able to derive it from the Bible.

Lets use the swan problem. You have never seen a black swan. No one you have ever talked to has ever seen a black swan. Would you say that you have justified true belief that all swans are white or would you say that you think you have it, but a black swan could be found at some point in the future?

I believe that it will be cold.
My justification for this is that, all things being equal, since God promised nature to be uniform I can know that places under 32 degrees will be freezing.

I agree with that statement. The issue is the "all things being equal part". I agree that if your observation tomorrow is the exact same condition for the observation that you have today, then it will give you the same result. The issue is can you predict infallible that tomorrow will have the exact same conditions as today (or a condition that you have seen in the past)?

If not then is not your knowledge all for not in this "new"? Are not you left with saying: "All freezers that operate under the conditions that I have observed are cold? If you have a freezer that is operating under conditions that I have not seen, I can tell you nothing. "

Could you ever say that "I have not seen other conditions besides my 50k observations of freezers, but no matter what the conditions are the freezer will be cold". Next, how close to your observed condition is good enough to say that your results will still hold in a different situation?

Also is it not possible that a variable that you thought was unimportant and did not take account of was important and made you give a bad prediction, because it had changed while others had stayed the same?

But are we truly dealing with induction as it is usually done? It goes from the specific case to the general case.

This is true because it conforms to the mind of God in that He knows all the factors and principles operating and He knows, based on His promise, that it will always be freezing under 32 degrees.

I have no problem with saying that water will always freeze under 32 F; unless some other condition (either seen before or not) is added to the game.

Is it possible that you can say how water will react to a condition that you have yet to see?

There is also the problem that your equipment to measure the conditions are not sensitive enough to really tell you the conditions within a small enough margin of error (to determine which case you are dealing with)

You are trying to be general and specific at the same time. I admit that there are certain inductions that I draw which I wouldn't say I *know.* Examples would be: All ball pythons I have seen are under eight feet. I may conclude that the next one will be but I wouldn't say that I know this.

Okay, so is it possible that you call something strong when it is actually weak? Or are you infallible in this game?

Can you say that it is impossible for me to be wrong about some inductive claim? Are there some inductive claims that you cannot say such about? How do you differentiate between the two.

Yes, it is most definately impossible. Yes. Depends on how close it is to a "law of nature" (i.e., cold/heat, harvest time, sun and moon, etc). Remember, TAs are very general. All we are doing now is getting into specific instances and I have no prblem on this level saying that there are stronger and weaker inductive claims.

The problem is knowing what the law of nature is and how it works in a situation that I have yet to see? Do you have any idea, how many scientific "laws" have gone by the wayside over the centuries? And those which are still here in some form are continually ongoing tweaks. (Or are you using the term "law" differently than scientists use it)

If you believe that we cannot use the uniformity of nature to be sure about situations where the conditions are such that we have not previously observed them, then I dont think we are that far apart.

Eventually we will have to be able to talk about why scientific theories go out of fashion so quickly?

CT

[Edited on 22-11-2004 by ChristianTrader]
 
Originally posted by Paul manata

I see you're totaly avoiding all the Scripture references. is your view that important that you will even hold i the face of contradicting the bible???

Yep. Most definitely.

The issue is can you get to the truth (and be justified in calling it the truth), without being able to derive it from the Bible.

Show me how you derive you being saved (which you said you know) from the bible while being philosophically certain of it, and answering these questions that you asked

The Bible gives qualifications for knowing that one is saved. I have done those qualifications. however, I guess it is still possible that I could be one of those who are in for a season though. The Bible does not really tell us what a person looks like if they are only going to be "one of us" for a season as opposed to permanently.

So I have to say that I cannot be philosophically certain about that. Or at least, I dont know how. (The only out is if somehow my knowing that I am saved is a precondition for intelligibility; at least that is the only way I can see it happening)

1. But since we are fallen, is it not possible that you will call something transcendental when it is not? (For example the Bible does not say that one is without excuse for every single doctrine). Some of Paul's writing are also hard and people can distort them.


2. Also is it possible to think that something conforms to the mind of God and you actually be wrong?


This is a good test. You said you KNEW the above, so test your theory out. Either you were wrong (and will just act ad hoc to save face) or your above definition is wrong.

I was just wrong, or at least think I am wrong, right now.

Tell me, *if* your definition is true then show me the steps you take to show that Joseph had absolute philosophical certainity that his brothers were back at camp.

My definition? But I would not know how to do that. Are you saying that it is philosophically certain that the Brothers were still at camp or that (they could not have snuck off someplace). Or something else, I am not following.

Tell me, *if* you definition is true then how did people derive *from the Bible* that summer is near from the leaves on fig trees while being philosophically certain?

If the Bible did not say that people know the summer is near then could people be philosophically certain that it was not some rare event occuring?

They could not. Because the Bible also justifies the uniformity of nature and the like. Without that justification we dont have the philosophical certainty?

We can say that the Bible says that we can know the summer by the fig true, then the fig tree will look a certain way when summer is near, and it will look that same way each time before the summer and only before the summer (not any time in the middle of the winter)

Tell me, *if* your story is true then tell me how you know that one has to be philosophically certain, all the while only knowing what he knows because its deduced from the bible, by deducing *THIS CLAIM* from the Bible. CT, I HAVE ASKED YOU TO DO THIS 4 TIMES NOW!!!! iF INDEED YOUR THEORY IS TRUE THEN YOU CAN DEDUCE IT FROM THE BIBLE. IF YOU CAN'T THEN YOU HAVE REFUTED YOURSELF. KINDOF LIKE THE EMPIRICISST WHO SAY THAT ALL KNOWLEDGE IS GAINED BY THE SENSES BUT *THAT* KNOWLEDGE ISN'T. This is very important for you to do. I want to see the exegesis and scripture citations where it says that "for one to know anything they must deduce it from the Bible." If you can't do this then you have been silenced.

The best that I could do is say that the Bible justifies us knowing certain things with philosophical certainty, but is silent about other things. (The Maple tree will look a certain way only when summer is approaching). To say more than the scripture would be unwarranted.

But since we are fallen, is it not possible that you will call something transcendental when it is not? (For example the Bible does not say that one is without excuse for every single doctrine). Some of Paul's writing are also hard and people can distort them.

Put your money where your mouth is. Give me an example and I will tell you wether I know it and then if I do I will show it. I'm not saying that I know everything.

Current death penalty offenses.

Lets use the swan problem. You have never seen a black swan. No one you have ever talked to has ever seen a black swan. Would you say that you have justified true belief that all swans are white or would you say that you think you have it, but a black swan could be found at some point in the future?


No, I wouldn't. Never claimed as much either.

Fair enough.

I agree with that statement. The issue is the "all things being equal part". I agree that if your observation tomorrow is the exact same condition for the observation that you have today, then it will give you the same result. The issue is can you predict infallible that tomorrow will have the exact same conditions as today (or a condition that you have seen in the past)?

No, God can though. And based on His word that nature is uniform I can predict that what freezes at 32 degrees yesterday will tomorrow (if the freezer is working). We are talking about freezing conditions here, not Joe Smith walked by yesterday and that must also be the same.

I see the point here. If you keep it general enough, you can say that you have certainty, but if you go just a bit specific, then you can error. I really have no problem there. So science is basically hit or miss because it has to go more specific.

If not then is not your knowledge all for not in this "new"? Are not you left with saying: "All freezers that operate under the conditions that I have observed are cold? If you have a freezer that is operating under conditions that I have not seen, I can tell you nothing. "

Things freeze at a certain temperature. Well, they have in the past but how do you know they will in the future? Because Nature is uniform. But how do you know nature is uniform? Maybe it was in the past but how do you know it will be in the future? Because God has promised to keep nature orderly, and based on His covenantal promise the next working freezer that I go into will have frozen stuff in it. But you don't know that since you don't know the future and all the conditions. Well, God does and since He does He has assured me that nature operates in a law like way. If the next freezer could freeze at 60 degrees and one at 150 and one at -250 then nature would not be uniform and God would be a liar.

I actually have no disagreements here as well.

Could you ever say that "I have not seen other conditions besides my 50k observations of freezers, but no matter what the conditions are the freezer will be cold". Next, how close to your observed condition is good enough to say that your results will still hold in a different situation?

That the freezer is working. If a freezer is blowing air which makes everything inside the freezer (that freezes at 32 degrees) that temperature then those things will freeze.

Good stuff.

Also is it not possible that a variable that you thought was unimportant and did not take account of was important and made you give a bad prediction, because it had changed while others had stayed the same?

example?

This query is no longer applicable because you have shown that your predictions about the future only hold for the general situation (water freezing).

I have no problem with saying that water will always freeze under 32 F; unless some other condition (either seen before or not) is added to the game.

Good.

Agreement again.

Is it possible that you can say how water will react to a condition that you have yet to see?

Like what? Something that changes the temperature? Then it wouldn't be "all things being equal."

Yeah, and induction is about making claims about stuff that you have yet to see based on stuff you have seen in the past. I am assuming that you would not say; "I went through a checklist of 50 things and therefore I am philosophically certain that when I walk into the freezer, it will be working".

So, if I walk in a freezer and the stuff inside isn't frozen then I will look around and see, maybe, the pluf is undone, there's a hole in the side, and I will conclude that the stuff inside didn't freeze due to whatever happened.

Fair enough, like everyone else.

Or, are you talking about green monkey men comming inside and whenever green monkey men go iside freezers things don't freeze at 32 but 45? Again, God said that heat and cold will REMAIN THE SAME. So, thinking God's thoughts after Him I know that GOD KNOWS all the possible conditions and if it was willy-nilly He wouldn't promise it.

Nope, If I believe in the uniformity of nature, then I reject the chaos excuse. I do and I do. However could you not replace green monkey men with some sort of additive, which makes water (or the inside of a freezer) freeze at a different temp (45 instead of 32)? That would not be an example of willy-nilly.

Okay, so is it possible that you call something strong when it is actually weak? Or are you infallible in this game?

No, by the very definition of inductive arguments. The future observation would make it weak, or not as strong. If I hadn't had that yet I would always call it strong. The strong and weak have nothing to do with truth. So, put that into my ball python example.

Fair enough.

Eventually we will have to be able to talk about why scientific theories go out of fashion so quickly?

I think Thomas Kuhn tells us. You should put down the Clark and read some other people.

Actually I have never read a word of clark.

I have heard a lot about Kuhn's Scientific Revolutions book. From what I have read, it seems that revolutions would go quicker if scientists held what they thought was correct, with a less tight grip. Instead of trying to make what they think be the right thing.

Lastly, I would love to know how Joseph could have philosophical certainty that his brothers had not run off (had been captured by bandits etc.)

CT

[Edited on 22-11-2004 by ChristianTrader]

[Edited on 22-11-2004 by ChristianTrader]

[Edited on 22-11-2004 by ChristianTrader]

[Edited on 22-11-2004 by ChristianTrader]

[Edited on 22-11-2004 by ChristianTrader]
 
OH MY GOODNESS!!!

One has to believe that one can come to absolute certainty for any biblical doctrine or one would have to challenge the perspecuity of scripture.

CT
 
Originally posted by Paul manata
Originally posted by ChristianTrader
OH MY GOODNESS!!!

One has to believe that one can come to absolute certainty for any biblical doctrine or one would have to challenge the perspecuity of scripture.


CT

That's what I told Brian. But it is not ANY doctrine because that doctrine doesn;t mean ANY dosctrine.
[/quote]

Which doctrines are included?

Lastly, I would love to know how Joseph could have philosophical certainty that his brothers had not run off (had been captured by bandits etc.)

I don't know all the particulars. The issue is that the Bible said he knew and on your definition he couldn't have. So, either the Bible, or your definition, needs revision.

[Edited on 11-22-2004 by Paul manata]
[/quote]

QED. I have to cry uncle here. The scriptures win again.

Now that I know I can derive knowledge from observations. How do I not make mistakes concerning observations. Let's use the red mailbox red barn example. We can correct mistakes with further (closer) observations. But when can we say with philosophical certainty that it is a red barn and not a mailbox? I have to accept that we can say it at some point. But when?

This is not a challenge, just a question that will assist me in further developing my ideas.

CT

[Edited on 22-11-2004 by ChristianTrader]
 
One Last Question about Joseph and how to apply that to my life.

If you went to some sheep herdering country someplace in the world. And you found a father, and many sons that were in the same situation as Joseph and His Father;

And You asked the father or the son if they were 100% certain that the others brothers were still in the field (or wherever the last place they were seen). Would they say yes, it is impossible for them to have either snuck off or been captured by raiders?

I want that kind of certainty but do not know how to get it, if I assume that I have made various mistakes in the past (that I have corrected).

CT
 
Since we are talking about books :bigsmile:

An interesting work is this one: http://snipurl.com/atwb

A Theonomic, Van-Tillian defense of Anti-Realism. The only problem is that finding a copy is like finding hen teeth. It was recommended on the All Bahnsen board.

One question. Do you know much about Sudduth and his book on Natural Theology coming out?

CT
 
Originally posted by Paul manata
Originally posted by ChristianTrader
Since we are talking about books :bigsmile:

An interesting work is this one: http://snipurl.com/atwb

A Theonomic, Van-Tillian defense of Anti-Realism. The only problem is that finding a copy is like finding hen teeth. It was recommended on the All Bahnsen board.

One question. Do you know much about Sudduth and his book on Natural Theology coming out?

CT

I'll check out the book. I am an epistemological realist and Bahnsen argues for it quite nicely in his Philosophy and epistemology and theology courses. BTW, how do you know they are Van Tilian?

The Book is dedicated to Bahnsen ("The Wayne Gretzky of good and necessary consequence")

The Book quotes Bahnsen favorable from his Foundations of Christian Scholarship article and his Van Til Apologetics book.
As well as favorable quotes of Van Til and references to his system.

I do know about Michael. Actually, I am engaged in a conversation which him right now! He is a reformed epistemologist and I have problems with that (though I wouldn't be thrilled about locking horns with Sudduth over it:book2: ). (You can see a brief engagement with a reformed epistemologist in the philosophy thread. Actually one of the best discussion I've had on this board.) Anyway, he used to be a full on Clarkian. He was in with Robbins and all those guys. He knows the system inside and out and has come to lothe it.

Sudduth is the same way (I don't know if he now loathe's Clark or not, but he was all about Clark in the past. He won an Trinity Foundation essay contest)

Regarding your question: Of course I do not agree with natural theology but will be interested in reading his thoughts. I know that he is very sharp and will present a good case. I agree with Van Til that one can't get from nature to natures God, especially by means of a discursive reasoning process.

[Edited on 11-23-2004 by Paul manata]

Cool. He does seem to be a pretty sharp person from some cursory reading.

CT
 
Paul,
Is there a another link to his Clark paper? I would really like to read it.

Edit: Nevermind, the internet wayback machine, came to my rescue.

CT

[Edited on 23-11-2004 by ChristianTrader]
 
Wow - I had no idea this thread would become what it has when I created it. Normally I would split it since it has become something other than it was begun as, but that's not really doable since the "transition" was gradual and overlapping. The precision with which you guys are discussing this is impressive.
 
Well I guess the first step on the road to recovery is to admit you have a problem. Therefore, I confess that I am a Clarkoholic. During the past six months of reading Paul's posts, and especially this post, have shown me the errors of this "substance" abuse (I think Clark defines "substance" as definition: D).

Paul, maybe you can put together a Clarkoholic recovery program that lists various books and papers to help us Clarkians make a full recovery. I am afraid that if I do not start a recovery program that I will relapse.

Thanks much

Jim
 
Right JWJ,
my favorite part of the thread was when Paul expressed that the "clarkians' were ganging up on HIM! When it was obvious that Paul was ganging up on us.

It was a great thread. Jim, we should get some Lakefront beer and read more about this Van Til fellow. Whoever he is. Didn't he say something about something?

And Paul, you are truly graced with a marvelous clarity of thought. I take great comfort in knowing (by observation and the Word) that you contend for and defend the faith so well.

Blessings
 
Originally posted by maxdetail
Right JWJ,
It was a great thread. Jim, we should get some Lakefront beer and read more about this Van Til fellow. Whoever he is. Didn't he say something about something?
Blessings

Reading Van Til will require more than just a few lakefront beers. I think I will have to also pull out some of my best cigars.

Jim
 
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