ReformedWretch
Puritan Board Doctor
My pastor and I agreed to study Roman 11 to discuss it when we next meet. As I study, this is the question that bothers me most. It seems to me that in most cases where it is stated that there must be a mass salvation of National Jews, it is based on emotionalism, or simply not wanting an anti-semitic charge thrown about.
Don't get me wrong, I don't believe that National Jews cannot be saved! I am just not sure that I see scriptural support for some mass, final conversion of National Jews especially from the land int he middle East.
I am leaning toward believing that "the fullness of the gentiles" was when Paul's ministry was complete. When salvation was offered to men of all Nations.
I also don't see us making National Jews jelous. I think this may have been speaking of Pauls day and the short future left before the destruction of the Temple and the City.
I am open for other opinion, but I am pretty deep in this study. It's just that, in my opinion, the claim that this passage must be in regard to some mass future conversion of National Jews as having little support.
Any thoughts?
Don't get me wrong, I don't believe that National Jews cannot be saved! I am just not sure that I see scriptural support for some mass, final conversion of National Jews especially from the land int he middle East.
I am leaning toward believing that "the fullness of the gentiles" was when Paul's ministry was complete. When salvation was offered to men of all Nations.
I also don't see us making National Jews jelous. I think this may have been speaking of Pauls day and the short future left before the destruction of the Temple and the City.
I am open for other opinion, but I am pretty deep in this study. It's just that, in my opinion, the claim that this passage must be in regard to some mass future conversion of National Jews as having little support.
Any thoughts?